Challenger App

No.1 PSC Learning App

1M+ Downloads

Consider the following statements regarding Article 311 of the Indian Constitution:

  1. Article 311(1) ensures that a civil servant cannot be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them.

  2. Article 311(2) mandates an inquiry before dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank, except in cases of criminal conviction or state security concerns.

  3. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 provided for a second opportunity for civil servants to make representations against proposed punishments.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A1 and 2 only

B1 and 3 only

C2 and 3 only

DAll of the above

Answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

Read Explanation:

Protections for Civil Servants: Article 311 of the Indian Constitution

  • Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides significant constitutional safeguards to persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. These safeguards ensure security of tenure and protection against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
  • The fundamental principle behind Article 311 is to protect civil servants from political interference and to allow them to perform their duties without fear or favour.

Article 311(1): Protection against Subordinate Authority

  • Article 311(1) stipulates that no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.
  • This provision is a crucial safeguard, ensuring that the disciplinary authority is at least of the same rank as, or superior to, the appointing authority. It prevents arbitrary action by lower-level officials.

Article 311(2): Right to Inquiry and Reasonable Opportunity

  • Article 311(2) mandates that no such person shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
  • This 'reasonable opportunity' implies a formal inquiry process, allowing the civil servant to present their defence, cross-examine witnesses, and produce evidence.
  • There are three key exceptions (provisos) to Article 311(2), where an inquiry is not mandatory:
    • Where a person is dismissed, removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge.
    • Where the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry.
    • Where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold such inquiry.

Impact of Constitutional Amendments

  • Prior to the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, Article 311(2) provided for a two-stage inquiry process: first, an inquiry into the charges, and second, a 'second opportunity' for the civil servant to make a representation on the proposed penalty.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 *removed* this second opportunity. It streamlined the process, providing for only one inquiry stage where charges are proved, and then the penalty is imposed.
  • However, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 *restored* a modified version of the 'reasonable opportunity'. It clarified that the civil servant must be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard on the charges, and this hearing would also include presenting their case against the proposed punishment if the charges are proved. It did not, however, reintroduce the explicit 'second opportunity' as it existed before the 42nd Amendment.

Related Questions:

Assertion (A): The Advocate General holds office at the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason (R): The Constitution fixes a five-year term for the Advocate General to ensure stability in the office.

Assertion (A): The Home Minister of the Central Government is the chairman of all Zonal Councils.

Reason (R): The Chief Ministers of the states in each zone act as vice-chairmen on a rotational basis for a term of one year.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Which among the following is correct regarding the remuneration of the Advocate General?

(i) The remuneration of the Advocate General is determined by the Governor and is not fixed by the Constitution.

(ii) The Advocate General’s remuneration is equivalent to that of a High Court judge as per constitutional mandate.

Read each of the following two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are not automatically binding on the state government.

Reason (R): The Constitution requires the Governor to lay the report before the legislature along with an 'explanatory memorandum' detailing the action taken, which implies the government has the discretion to accept, reject, or modify the recommendations.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the judicial interpretation of the Doctrine of Pleasure?

  1. State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) clarified that the doctrine was not adopted in its entirety from English Common Law.

  2. Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) emphasized that the doctrine is grounded in public policy.

  3. The doctrine allows unrestricted dismissal of Chief Election Commissioners.