Which of the following statements about the first Lok Sabha elections is/are correct?

1. The first Lok Sabha elections were held from 1951 to 1952.

2. The state of Himachal Pradesh (Chini Taluk) had elections during the first Lok Sabha polls.

3. Shyam Sharan Negi was the first person to vote in the Lok Sabha elections.

4. The total seats contested in the first Lok Sabha were 545.

Identify correct statements related to election deposits and expenditure limits:

1. The deposit amount for candidates contesting the Lok Sabha elections is Rs. 25,000 for general candidates.

2. SC/ST candidates have to deposit half the amount as general candidates in Lok Sabha elections.

3. Maximum election expenditure for Lok Sabha candidates in large states was hiked to Rs. 95 lakh recently.

4. The deposit amount for the Vice President elections is Rs. 50,000.

Choose the correct statements regarding the Election Commission’s structure and appointment:

1. The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners as per Article 324.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner serves as the Chairperson but holds no greater powers than others.

3. The 2023 Amendment establishes a Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law to shortlist candidates.

4. The Constitutional qualifications for Election Commissioners are explicitly laid down.

Consider the following about political parties and their election symbols:

1. The symbol of the Bharatiya Janata Party is the Lotus.

2. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) symbol includes a hammer and sickle and a star.

3. The Indian National Congress symbol is the Elephant.

4. The Aam Aadmi Party’s symbol is the Broom.

Which are correct?

Which of the following correctly describe the Election Commission’s role in election disputes and conduct?

1. Courts have no jurisdiction over elections except through election petitions as per Article 329.

2. The Election Commission decides the validity of laws on delimitation of constituencies.

3. It decides the schedule and date of elections in consultation with the President.

4. Election Commission’s opinion is binding on the President and Governors on disqualification matters.

Choose the right statements regarding elections and voting age in India:

1. The legal voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 by the 61st Amendment in 1989.

2. Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was serving when the 61st Amendment was enacted.

3. Manipur was the first state in India to hold elections based on adult suffrage.

4. Every Indian citizen aged 18 or above can vote without restriction.

Which among the following facts about the political parties and their founders is/are correct?

1. The Indian National Congress was founded by A.O. Hume.

2. Shiv Sena was founded by Bal Thackeray.

3. The Bahujan Samaj Party was founded by Kanshi Ram.

4. Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded by Syama Prasad Mukherjee.

Regarding the State Election Commissions (SECs), which of the following statements is/are true?

1. SECs are appointed by the Governor of respective states as per Article 243K.

2. They supervise elections to municipalities and Panchayats, independent of the Central Election Commission.

3. The term of office for State Election Commissioners is 6 years as fixed by the Parliament.

4. Removal of State Election Commissioner follows the same procedure as removal of a High Court judge.

Choose the correct statements about the tenure and salary of Election Commissioners:

1. The term of office of Election Commissioners is 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

2. The salaries of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed without the Chief Election Commissioner's recommendation.

4. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the President on any grounds without special procedure.

Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for recognition of national political parties in India:

1. A party must secure at least 6% of valid votes in four or more states and win four Lok Sabha seats from any state(s).

2. A party winning 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least three states qualifies as a national party.

3. Being recognized as a state party in four states automatically qualifies a party as a national party.

4. Winning 10% of assembly seats in any state qualifies a party as a national party.

Which are correct?

Which of the following are true regarding VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail) in India?

1. VVPAT provides a physical slip to voters verifying their vote cast electronically.

2. The first pilot VVPAT use was in Nagaland in 2013.

3. Goa was the first state to use VVPAT in all assembly constituencies in 2017.

4. Kerala implemented VVPAT in 12 constituencies before nationwide implementation.

Choose the correct statements regarding the NOTA (None of the Above) option in Indian elections:

1. NOTA was first introduced in India after a Supreme Court ruling in 2013.

2. India was the first country globally to introduce NOTA in electronic voting machines.

3. If NOTA gets the highest number of votes, the election is repeated in that constituency.

4. The NOTA symbol was designed by the National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad.

Consider the following statements about the appointment and removal of Election Commissioners in India:

1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can only be removed by impeachment similar to a Supreme Court judge.

2. The other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President without any recommendation.

3. According to the 2023 Amendment Bill, appointment of Election Commissioners is made by a committee excluding the Chief Justice of India.

4. The service conditions of Election Commissioners cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about the powers and functions of the Election Commission are correct?

1. The Election Commission has quasi-judicial powers related to disqualification of elected members.

2. It can cancel polls in cases of booth capturing and election rigging.

3. The Commission has exclusive powers to recognize political parties and allot their election symbols.

4. The Election Commission also supervises local body elections across all states.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

1. The Election Commission of India was established as a permanent constitutional body under Article 324 of the Constitution.

2. The Commission initially started as a single-member body but became a multi-member body only in 1993.

3. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has equal powers and authority as other Election Commissioners, and decisions in case of dissent are based on majority.

4. The term of Election Commissioners is fixed only by the Parliament and not specified in the Constitution.

Consider the following statements about political parties in India:

1. The Indian National Congress, founded in 1885, uses the symbol of a hand.

2. A political party can be recognized as a national party if it is recognized as a state party in four states.

3. The Communist Party of India (CPI) split in 1964 due to ideological differences between the Soviet Union and China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Chief Election Commissioners:

1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India and also served as the first Chief Election Commissioner of Nepal and Sudan.

2. V.S. Ramadevi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner and also the shortest-serving.

3. Gyanesh Kumar is the current Chief Election Commissioner and the first appointed by a selection committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the first Lok Sabha elections:

1. The first Lok Sabha elections were held between October 25, 1951, and February 21, 1952.

2. The first person to vote in the Lok Sabha elections was Shyam Sharan Negi.

3. The Congress party won 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the State Election Commission:

1. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and has a term of 5 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

2. The State Election Commission has the same autonomy as the Election Commission of India.

3. The State Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner as a High Court Judge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:

1. The Election Commission has administrative, advisory, and quasi-judicial powers in relation to elections.

2. The opinion of the Election Commission on disqualification of sitting members of Parliament is binding on the President.

3. The Election Commission can independently appoint the Chief Electoral Officer of a state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about political parties and their recognition are correct?

1. A political party must secure 6% of valid votes in four or more states and win four Lok Sabha seats to be recognized as a national party.

2. A state party must secure 6% of valid votes in a state and win two seats in the state’s Legislative Assembly to be recognized as a state party.

3. The Election Commission conducts elections to local self-governing bodies like Panchayats.

Which of the following statements about NOTA and VVPAT are correct?

1. NOTA was first implemented in India on October 11, 2013, in ballot papers.

2. The first VVPAT was implemented on a pilot basis in the Noxon constituency of Nagaland in 2013.

3. The NOTA button was initially pink but changed to white for parliamentary elections.

Which of the following statements about the powers of the Election Commission are correct?

1. The Election Commission can disqualify a candidate for failing to submit election expense accounts within the prescribed time.

2. The Election Commission has the authority to allot election symbols to political parties.

3. The Election Commission conducts elections to local self-governing bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities.

Which of the following statements about the appointment process of Election Commissioners are correct?

1. The Anoop Baranwal case (2023) introduced a selection committee including the Chief Justice of India for appointing Election Commissioners.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023, replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Union Cabinet Minister in the selection committee.

3. The qualifications for Election Commissioners are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

Which of the following statements about the structure and functioning of the Election Commission are correct?

1. The Election Commission was a single-member body until 1989, when it became a multi-member body.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners receive a salary of ₹2,50,000, charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The President appoints Regional Commissioners without consulting the Election Commission.

Which of the following statements about NOTA and VVPAT are correct?

i. NOTA was made mandatory by the Supreme Court on September 27, 2013.

ii. The first state to conduct elections using VVPAT for all assembly constituencies was Goa in 2017.

iii. The NOTA symbol was designed by the National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad.

iv. If NOTA receives the most votes in an election, the candidate with the second-highest votes is declared the winner.

Which of the following statements about the powers and duties of the Election Commission are correct?

i. The Election Commission has advisory jurisdiction over the disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

ii. The Election Commission can cancel polls due to irregularities like rigging or booth capturing.

iii. The Election Commission has the authority to determine the code of conduct for political parties and candidates during elections.

iv. The Election Commission conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities in the states.

Which of the following statements about the constitutional provisions of the Election Commission are correct?

i. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.

ii. Article 325 ensures no person is ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll based on religion, race, caste, or sex.

iii. Article 329 allows courts to interfere in the delimitation of constituencies.

iv. The 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.

Which of the following statements about the Election Commission of India are correct?

i. The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, and its headquarters is located at Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi.

ii. The Chief Election Commissioner has greater powers than other Election Commissioners in decision-making processes. \

iii. National Voters' Day is celebrated on January 25 since 2011 to encourage voter participation.

iv. The Election Commission celebrated its golden jubilee in 2001.

Consider the following statements about major Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 73rd Amendment Act added the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

2. The 52nd Amendment Act initially designated the Supreme Court as the final authority to decide on disqualification due to defection.

3. The 86th Amendment Act introduced the fundamental duty for a parent or guardian to provide educational opportunities to their child between the ages of 6 and 14.

4. The 74th Amendment Act added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with Municipalities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, consider the following provisions:

1. It capped the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It stipulated that for all states, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than 12.

3. A member disqualified on the ground of defection is also disqualified from being appointed as a minister.

4. It strengthened the anti-defection law by removing the exception for splits involving one-third of the members of a legislature party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Constitution:

1. 'Total membership', in the context of a special majority, refers to the effective strength of the House, excluding any existing vacancies.

2. Ratification of an amendment by a state legislature requires the bill to be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting.

3. The 24th Amendment Act of 1971 made the President's assent to a constitutional amendment bill compulsory.

4. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following changes brought about by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:

1. It added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.

2. It transferred five subjects, including Education and Forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It introduced Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part XIV-A (Tribunals) into the Constitution.

4. It stipulated that the President can act only on the advice of the Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following provisions of the Constitution:

1. Admission or establishment of new states.

2. Provisions related to the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

3. Amendment of Directive Principles of State Policy.

4. Alteration of emoluments and privileges in the Second Schedule.

Which of the provisions listed above can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament and are not considered amendments under Article 368?

Statement 1: The Indian Constitution provides for a special body, similar to a Constitutional Convention in the USA, for the purpose of amending the Constitution.
Statement 2: The Constitution does not prescribe a time frame within which state legislatures must ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.

Which of the following statements are true?

tatement 1: The 86th Amendment Act added Article 21(A) to the Fundamental Rights and also inserted a new fundamental duty under Article 51(A)(k).
Statement 2: The same amendment modified Article 45 under the Directive Principles to provide for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: The impeachment of the President of India under Article 61 requires a special majority defined as two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.
Statement 2: The removal of a Supreme Court judge requires a special majority defined as a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: The 44th Amendment Act guaranteed that Fundamental Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Statement 2: The 42nd Amendment Act moved the Right to Property from a Fundamental Right to a legal right under Article 300A.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by a private member, but only in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2: If a bill seeks to amend provisions related to the Supreme Court, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Which of the following statements are true?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law:

1. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified if they join any political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.

2. The provision exempting disqualification on the ground of a 'split' by one-third of a legislature party's members was removed by the 91st Amendment Act.

3. The Supreme Court, in the Kihoto Hollohan case, ruled that the presiding officer's decision on disqualification is final and cannot be subjected to judicial review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements concerning the 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts:

1. The 42nd Amendment Act empowered the President to declare a state of emergency in a specific part of India.

2. The 44th Amendment Act restored the provision for quorum in Parliament, which had been abolished by the 42nd Amendment Act.

3. The 42nd Amendment Act substituted the ground of 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for the declaration of a National Emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticisms of the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. A major criticism is the absence of a provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment bill.

2. The Constitution clearly specifies that states cannot withdraw their approval for an amendment bill once it has been given.

3. The power to initiate a constitutional amendment is vested exclusively with the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the types of constitutional amendments:

1. The procedure for amending Article 368 itself requires a special majority of the Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

2. The abolition or creation of legislative councils in states is considered an amendment under Article 368.

3. Amendments related to the formation of new states and the alteration of their boundaries do not fall under the purview of Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the President's role in the constitutional amendment process:

1. A bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior permission of the President.

2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 made it obligatory for the President to give his/her assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President cannot return a constitutional amendment bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the proclamation and approval of a National Emergency under Article 352.

1. After the 44th Amendment, the proclamation must be approved by Parliament within one month.

2. The approval by Parliament requires a special majority, defined as a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements related to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.

1. Both amendments were introduced and approved under the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

2. The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects, while the 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule containing 18 subjects.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Analyze the following statements concerning the amendment of the Indian Constitution.

1. Amendments under Article 368 can be initiated by either a minister or a private member.

2. The President can return a Constitutional Amendment Bill for reconsideration by the Parliament.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

With regard to the provisions of the 91st Amendment Act, consider the following statements.

1. The total number of ministers in a state, including the Chief Minister, cannot be less than 12, with no exceptions.

2. A member disqualified under the anti-defection law is also disqualified from being appointed as a minister.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding different types of majorities used in the Indian Parliament.

1. The removal of the Vice-President requires an effective majority of the Rajya Sabha, followed by a special majority in the Lok Sabha.

2. Disapproval of the continuance of a national emergency by the Lok Sabha requires only a simple majority.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the following legislative actions require only a simple majority in the Parliament?

1. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

2. Amendment of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

3. Approval of a proclamation of financial emergency.

4. Ratification of a federal amendment by a state legislature.

Select the correct option: