Consider the following statements with regard to Article 311 of the Constitution of India:

(i) Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants by requiring a reasonable opportunity for a hearing.
(ii) Article 311 applies to all civil servants, including members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
(iii) The restrictions under Article 311 control the exercise of the Doctrine of Pleasure by the President or Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to the Doctrine of Pleasure:

(i) The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without providing any notice, based on public policy.
(ii) The tenure of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is subject to the pleasure of the President.
(iii) The Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy rather than a feudal prerogative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Read the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law.

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.

2. An independent member is disqualified if they join any political party after their election.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be passed by a joint sitting of both houses of Parliament.

2. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements about amending the federal provisions of the Constitution:

1. It requires a special majority of the Parliament.

2. It must be ratified by the legislatures of all the states.

3. The ratification by states requires a special majority in their legislatures.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. The consent of state legislatures is required for amendments affecting the federal structure of the Constitution.

2. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended.

3. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the types of majority in the Indian Parliament:

1. A simple majority is sufficient to pass ordinary bills and money bills.

2. An absolute majority is required for the impeachment of the President under Article 61.

3. A special majority is required to amend the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law.

2. It allows exemptions from disqualification in cases of mergers if two-thirds of the party members agree.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on defection cases is not subject to judicial review.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the proclamation of a national emergency under Article 352:

1. A national emergency requires parliamentary approval within one month by a special majority.

2. The six Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended during a national emergency.

3. The President can proclaim a national emergency without the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with municipalities.

2. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects under the powers of municipalities.

3. It mandated that all states must adopt a three-tier municipal system.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the quorum requirement in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts regarding judicial review.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

2. It removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights and added Article 300A.

3. It mandated that a national emergency can only be declared on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It limited the size of the Central Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It removed the exemption from disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law for splits in political parties.

3. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14.

2. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.

3. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 12.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

2. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. It mandated the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in Panchayati Raj institutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of laws.

2. It removed the right to property as a Fundamental Right and placed it under Article 300A.

3. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, excluding vacant seats.

2. A special majority under Article 368 requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

3. A simple majority is required for the approval of a national emergency under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a political party can be disqualified for voting against the party’s direction without prior permission, unless condoned within 15 days.

2. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be challenged in court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption for disqualification in case of a split in the party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution under Article 368.

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in state legislatures.

2. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill after its passage by Parliament.

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. It added Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

2. It empowered the Centre to deploy armed forces in states to address serious law and order situations.

3. It froze the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies based on the 1971 Census until 2001.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

1. It established that constitutional amendments cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.

2. It upheld the 24th Constitutional Amendment, which made the President’s assent to amendment bills mandatory.

3. It ruled that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, which includes 29 subjects related to Panchayats.

2. The 74th Amendment introduced Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects related to municipalities.

3. Both amendments were passed under the leadership of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party after six months of taking their seat in the House.

2. The disqualification of a member for defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House, and this decision is final.

3. An independent member is disqualified if they join a political party after their election.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

1. It restored the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

2. It introduced the term "Cabinet" in Article 352, requiring the President to act on the Cabinet’s written recommendation for proclaiming an emergency.

3. It allowed the suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during a national emergency.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the power of the Supreme Court to decide election disputes involving the Prime Minister and Speaker.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

2. Provisions like the use of official language or delimitation of constituencies can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.

3. There is a time limit within which state legislatures must ratify a constitutional amendment bill affecting federal provisions.

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or vote against the party’s direction without prior permission.

2. The decision on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is made by the presiding officer and is not subject to judicial review.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in cases of a split in the legislature party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances.

2. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.

3. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It extended the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments:

1. Amendments to provisions related to the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

2. A simple majority in Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the creation of new states or changes to the Fifth Schedule.

3. The term "special majority" refers to a majority of the total membership of each House, regardless of vacancies or absentees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can only be introduced in either House of Parliament and not in state legislatures.

2. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

3. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the issue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding provisions amendable by a special majority of Parliament.

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be amended by a special majority of Parliament alone.

2. The representation of states in Parliament requires a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures.

3. The number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court can be amended by a special majority of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticism of the amendment procedure.

1. The amendment procedure is criticized for being too similar to the ordinary legislative process, except for the special majority requirement.

2. The Constitution provides detailed guidelines on the time frame for state legislatures to ratify amendments.

3. The power to amend the Constitution lies exclusively with the Parliament, with no role for a special body like a Constitutional Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority in the Indian Constitution.

1. An absolute majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, irrespective of vacancies or absentees.

2. A special majority is required for the impeachment of the President, which involves a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.

3. An effective majority is used for passing ordinary bills in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the role of the President in constitutional amendments.

1. The President must give assent to a constitutional amendment bill, as mandated by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.

2. The President can initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President’s assent is required only for amendments that involve federal provisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment process under Article 368?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

2. Each House of Parliament must pass the bill separately with a special majority.

3. The President’s assent is mandatory for a constitutional amendment bill to become an Act.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution?

1. The power to amend the Constitution lies exclusively with the Parliament.

2. The President’s prior permission is required to introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

3. A constitutional amendment bill must be passed by a special majority in each House of Parliament separately.

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority is required for the removal of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha.

2. A special majority of two-thirds of the total membership of each House is required for the impeachment of the President.

3. A simple majority is sufficient for passing a Money Bill in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

1. The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

2. The case overturned the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.

3. The basic structure doctrine applies only to amendments made by a special majority of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of amendments in the Indian Constitution:

1. Amendments to provisions like the formation of new states can be made by a simple majority of Parliament.

2. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures.

3. The concept of amending the Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in state legislatures.

2. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

3. In case of disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament, a joint sitting can be held to resolve the deadlock.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary approval of a National Emergency:

1. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.

2. If approved, the emergency continues for one year and can be extended indefinitely with approval every year.

3. The resolution for approval must be passed by a special majority in both Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the extension of President's Rule beyond one year is subject to which of the following conditions?

1. A proclamation of National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or any part of the state.

2. The Election Commission must certify that holding general elections to the state's legislative assembly is difficult.

3. The state's High Court must approve the extension.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

When President's Rule is imposed in a state, which of the following consequences occur?

1. The President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.

2. The President assumes the powers of the state's High Court and can suspend its constitutional provisions.

3. The Parliament becomes empowered to legislate on subjects in the State List for that state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following historical facts about the imposition of President's Rule in India:

1. The first state where President's Rule was imposed after the Constitution's enactment was Kerala in 1959.

2. The state that has been under President's Rule for the longest continuous period is Punjab.

3. The state where President's Rule has been imposed the most number of times is Manipur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the proclamation of a Financial Emergency under Article 360, consider the following statements:

1. It must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from its date of issue.

2. Once approved, it requires repeated parliamentary approval every six months for its continuation.

3. A proclamation of Financial Emergency has been declared only once in India, during the 1991 economic crisis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The proclamation for both President's Rule (Article 356) and Financial Emergency (Article 360) requires parliamentary approval within two months.

2. The resolution for approving both types of emergencies must be passed by a simple majority in Parliament.

3. The President's Rule is also known as 'Constitutional Emergency', while a Financial Emergency is known as 'State Emergency'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the history of President's Rule in Kerala, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Kerala was the first state in India where President's Rule was imposed after the enactment of the Constitution.

2. The longest continuous period of President's Rule in Kerala was from 1964 to 1967.

3. President's Rule has been imposed in Kerala a total of 11 times, the most for any state in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Regarding the imposition of President's Rule, consider the following:

Assertion (A): The President can impose President's Rule in a state even without a report from the Governor.
Reason (R): The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 affirmed that the satisfaction of the President in invoking Article 356 is not subject to judicial review.

Which of the above are true?