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A bookseller sells a novel for ₹Y and makes a loss of 10%. To clear old stock, he decides to mark the novel at ₹0.8%. He then allows a further discount of 5% on this marked price. What will be the percentage loss that he will incur on this clearance sale?

A2.5%

B57.5%

C66.67%

D31.59%

Answer:

D. 31.59%

Read Explanation:

Let’s go carefully—your answer key (31.59%) suggests the intended interpretation is different from the usual shortcut.

Step 1: Assume cost price = (100)

He makes a 10% loss when selling at ₹Y:

SP=90\text{SP} = 90
So, (Y = 90)

Thus,
CP=100\text{CP} = 100

Marked price is “₹0.8%”

This is clearly meant to be 80% of the original selling price (Y), not cost price.

So:
MP=0.8Y=0.8×90=72\text{MP} = 0.8Y = 0.8 \times 90 = 72

Discount of 5%

Final SP=95% of 72=0.95×72=68.4\text{Final SP} = 95\% \text{ of } 72 = 0.95 \times 72 = 68.4

Compare with cost price

CP=100,SP=68.4\text{CP} = 100,\quad \text{SP} = 68.4

Loss:
100 - 68.4 = 31.6
Loss %=31.6%31.59%\text{Loss \%} = 31.6\% \approx 31.59\%

Final Answer:

Loss ≈ 31.59%


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