ABe
BBeen
CCan
DHas
Answer:
A. Be
Read Explanation:
Correct Answer: Option A (Be)
The correct answer is "be" because in English grammar, when two modal verbs or a modal verb and "cannot" are used together, the second verb must be in its base form (infinitive without 'to').
Key Grammar Rule:
"Cannot" (can + not) is itself a modal auxiliary verb. When a modal verb is followed by another verb, that verb must always be in its bare infinitive (base form).
"It cannot be the whole truth." — Correct
Why the other options are wrong:
Option B – "Been": "Been" is the past participle of "be." It cannot follow "cannot" directly without a helping verb like "have" (e.g., "cannot have been").
Option C – "Can": Two modal verbs (cannot + can) cannot be placed together in standard English grammar.
Option D – "Has": "Has" is a finite verb (third person singular), not appropriate after a modal verb like "cannot."
Important Related Facts:
Modal verbs include: can, could, will, would, shall, should, may, might, must, ought to.
Modal verbs are always followed by the bare infinitive (base form of the verb).
"Cannot" = can + not (a negative modal construction).
The verb "be" is the base/infinitive form, while "been" is its past participle form.
