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Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Doctrine of Pleasure?

i. The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without any notice.

ii. The Doctrine of Pleasure is based on the British Crown’s prerogative and has been adopted without modifications in India.

iii. Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants.

iv. The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner is subject to the pleasure of the President.

v. The Supreme Court in State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) held that the English Common Law was adopted in its entirety for the Doctrine of Pleasure.


AOnly i and iii

BOnly iii

COnly i, iii, and iv

DOnly ii and v

Answer:

A. Only i and iii

Read Explanation:

Doctrine of Pleasure in Indian Polity

  • The Doctrine of Pleasure is a principle derived from English Common Law, which grants the Crown the right to dismiss its servants at will.
  • In India, this doctrine is applicable to civil servants holding office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor, as the case may be.
  • Statement (i) is correct: This doctrine, in its original form, allows for the termination of a civil servant’s service without the requirement of a formal inquiry or notice.
  • Statement (ii) is incorrect: While the doctrine has its roots in British Crown's prerogative, it has been significantly modified and incorporated into the Indian Constitution, particularly with the safeguards provided under Article 311. It is not adopted without modifications.
  • Statement (iii) is correct: Article 311 of the Indian Constitution imposes crucial restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. It mandates that such actions can only be taken after an inquiry, giving the civil servant a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
  • Statement (iv) is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Their removal from office is through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge, requiring a resolution passed by a majority of total membership of each House of Parliament and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting, on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. They are not removable by the pleasure of the President.
  • Statement (v) is incorrect: The Supreme Court in State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) clarified that the Doctrine of Pleasure, as applied in India, is subject to the provisions of the Constitution, particularly Article 311. The Court held that the doctrine is not absolute and cannot be invoked to violate constitutional guarantees. The English Common Law was not adopted in its entirety.

Key Takeaways for Competitive Exams:

  • Understand the exceptions to the Doctrine of Pleasure, primarily Article 311, which protects civil servants.
  • Differentiate between positions held during the pleasure of the President/Governor and those with fixed tenures and specific removal procedures (e.g., CEC, Judges).
  • Recognize that the Indian application of the Doctrine of Pleasure is a qualified doctrine, not an absolute one.

Related Questions:

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of UPSC members:

  1. The President can remove a UPSC member for misbehaviour only after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.

  2. Misbehaviour includes engaging in paid employment outside the duties of the office during the term.

  3. The President can suspend a UPSC member during an inquiry for misbehavior.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about the CAG’s powers and limitations is/are correct?
i. The CAG can inspect any office or department subject to his/her audit and call for any records or documents.
ii. The CAG has the authority to audit secret service expenditure without requiring a certificate from the competent authority.
iii. The CAG decides the extent and manner of the audit.
iv. The CAG certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty, and this certificate is final.

The recommendations submitted by the State Finance Commission to the Governor include principles governing:

  1. The sharing of net income of state-levied taxes between the Government and Panchayats.

  2. The appointment of executive officers for the Panchayats.

  3. The taxes, duties, cesses, and fees which may be marked for and expended by the Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

onsider the following statements about the Audit Board and historical aspects of the CAG:

i. The Audit Board was established in 1968 based on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Committee.

ii. The Audit Board consists of a Chairman and two members appointed by the CAG.

iii. The first CAG of independent India was V. Narahari Rao, appointed in 1948.

iv. The CAG was relieved of maintaining Central Government accounts in 1976 due to the separation of accounts from audit.

v. The Audit Board audits all government and semi-government institutions without requiring technical expertise.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Which among the following is correct regarding the Advocate General’s rights in the state legislature?

(i) The Advocate General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the state legislature or its committees but cannot vote.

(ii) The Advocate General enjoys the same powers as the Speaker of the state legislature in legislative proceedings.