Which of the following statements about the powers of the Election Commission are correct?

1. The Election Commission can disqualify a candidate for failing to submit election expense accounts within the prescribed time.

2. The Election Commission has the authority to allot election symbols to political parties.

3. The Election Commission conducts elections to local self-governing bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities.

Which of the following statements about the appointment process of Election Commissioners are correct?

1. The Anoop Baranwal case (2023) introduced a selection committee including the Chief Justice of India for appointing Election Commissioners.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023, replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Union Cabinet Minister in the selection committee.

3. The qualifications for Election Commissioners are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.

Which of the following statements about the structure and functioning of the Election Commission are correct?

1. The Election Commission was a single-member body until 1989, when it became a multi-member body.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners receive a salary of ₹2,50,000, charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The President appoints Regional Commissioners without consulting the Election Commission.

Which of the following statements about NOTA and VVPAT are correct?

i. NOTA was made mandatory by the Supreme Court on September 27, 2013.

ii. The first state to conduct elections using VVPAT for all assembly constituencies was Goa in 2017.

iii. The NOTA symbol was designed by the National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad.

iv. If NOTA receives the most votes in an election, the candidate with the second-highest votes is declared the winner.

Which of the following statements about the powers and duties of the Election Commission are correct?

i. The Election Commission has advisory jurisdiction over the disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

ii. The Election Commission can cancel polls due to irregularities like rigging or booth capturing.

iii. The Election Commission has the authority to determine the code of conduct for political parties and candidates during elections.

iv. The Election Commission conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities in the states.

Which of the following statements about the constitutional provisions of the Election Commission are correct?

i. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.

ii. Article 325 ensures no person is ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll based on religion, race, caste, or sex.

iii. Article 329 allows courts to interfere in the delimitation of constituencies.

iv. The 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.

Which of the following statements about the Election Commission of India are correct?

i. The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, and its headquarters is located at Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi.

ii. The Chief Election Commissioner has greater powers than other Election Commissioners in decision-making processes. \

iii. National Voters' Day is celebrated on January 25 since 2011 to encourage voter participation.

iv. The Election Commission celebrated its golden jubilee in 2001.

Consider the following statements about major Constitutional Amendments:

1. The 73rd Amendment Act added the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

2. The 52nd Amendment Act initially designated the Supreme Court as the final authority to decide on disqualification due to defection.

3. The 86th Amendment Act introduced the fundamental duty for a parent or guardian to provide educational opportunities to their child between the ages of 6 and 14.

4. The 74th Amendment Act added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with Municipalities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, consider the following provisions:

1. It capped the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It stipulated that for all states, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than 12.

3. A member disqualified on the ground of defection is also disqualified from being appointed as a minister.

4. It strengthened the anti-defection law by removing the exception for splits involving one-third of the members of a legislature party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Constitution:

1. 'Total membership', in the context of a special majority, refers to the effective strength of the House, excluding any existing vacancies.

2. Ratification of an amendment by a state legislature requires the bill to be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting.

3. The 24th Amendment Act of 1971 made the President's assent to a constitutional amendment bill compulsory.

4. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following changes brought about by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:

1. It added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.

2. It transferred five subjects, including Education and Forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

3. It introduced Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part XIV-A (Tribunals) into the Constitution.

4. It stipulated that the President can act only on the advice of the Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following provisions of the Constitution:

1. Admission or establishment of new states.

2. Provisions related to the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.

3. Amendment of Directive Principles of State Policy.

4. Alteration of emoluments and privileges in the Second Schedule.

Which of the provisions listed above can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament and are not considered amendments under Article 368?

Statement 1: The Indian Constitution provides for a special body, similar to a Constitutional Convention in the USA, for the purpose of amending the Constitution.
Statement 2: The Constitution does not prescribe a time frame within which state legislatures must ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.

Which of the following statements are true?

tatement 1: The 86th Amendment Act added Article 21(A) to the Fundamental Rights and also inserted a new fundamental duty under Article 51(A)(k).
Statement 2: The same amendment modified Article 45 under the Directive Principles to provide for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: The impeachment of the President of India under Article 61 requires a special majority defined as two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.
Statement 2: The removal of a Supreme Court judge requires a special majority defined as a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: The 44th Amendment Act guaranteed that Fundamental Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Statement 2: The 42nd Amendment Act moved the Right to Property from a Fundamental Right to a legal right under Article 300A.

Which of the following statements are true?

Statement 1: A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by a private member, but only in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2: If a bill seeks to amend provisions related to the Supreme Court, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Which of the following statements are true?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law:

1. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified if they join any political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.

2. The provision exempting disqualification on the ground of a 'split' by one-third of a legislature party's members was removed by the 91st Amendment Act.

3. The Supreme Court, in the Kihoto Hollohan case, ruled that the presiding officer's decision on disqualification is final and cannot be subjected to judicial review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements concerning the 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts:

1. The 42nd Amendment Act empowered the President to declare a state of emergency in a specific part of India.

2. The 44th Amendment Act restored the provision for quorum in Parliament, which had been abolished by the 42nd Amendment Act.

3. The 42nd Amendment Act substituted the ground of 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for the declaration of a National Emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticisms of the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. A major criticism is the absence of a provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment bill.

2. The Constitution clearly specifies that states cannot withdraw their approval for an amendment bill once it has been given.

3. The power to initiate a constitutional amendment is vested exclusively with the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the types of constitutional amendments:

1. The procedure for amending Article 368 itself requires a special majority of the Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

2. The abolition or creation of legislative councils in states is considered an amendment under Article 368.

3. Amendments related to the formation of new states and the alteration of their boundaries do not fall under the purview of Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the President's role in the constitutional amendment process:

1. A bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior permission of the President.

2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 made it obligatory for the President to give his/her assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President cannot return a constitutional amendment bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the proclamation and approval of a National Emergency under Article 352.

1. After the 44th Amendment, the proclamation must be approved by Parliament within one month.

2. The approval by Parliament requires a special majority, defined as a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements related to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.

1. Both amendments were introduced and approved under the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

2. The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects, while the 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule containing 18 subjects.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Analyze the following statements concerning the amendment of the Indian Constitution.

1. Amendments under Article 368 can be initiated by either a minister or a private member.

2. The President can return a Constitutional Amendment Bill for reconsideration by the Parliament.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

With regard to the provisions of the 91st Amendment Act, consider the following statements.

1. The total number of ministers in a state, including the Chief Minister, cannot be less than 12, with no exceptions.

2. A member disqualified under the anti-defection law is also disqualified from being appointed as a minister.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding different types of majorities used in the Indian Parliament.

1. The removal of the Vice-President requires an effective majority of the Rajya Sabha, followed by a special majority in the Lok Sabha.

2. Disapproval of the continuance of a national emergency by the Lok Sabha requires only a simple majority.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the following legislative actions require only a simple majority in the Parliament?

1. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

2. Amendment of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

3. Approval of a proclamation of financial emergency.

4. Ratification of a federal amendment by a state legislature.

Select the correct option:

Identify the correct statements regarding the limitations and characteristics of the constitutional amendment procedure in India.

1. The Constitution provides for a special body like a Constitutional Convention for the purpose of amendments.

2. A strict time frame is prescribed for state legislatures to ratify an amendment bill.

3. The process of amendment, barring the special majority requirement, is largely similar to that of an ordinary legislative process.

4. The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case held that the fundamental elements of the Constitution cannot be amended.

Select the correct option:

Which of the following constitutional changes were effectuated through the 86th Amendment Act?

1. It introduced Article 21A, making primary education a Fundamental Right.

2. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below the age of six.

3. It added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents or guardians.

4. It removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct option:

Regarding the procedure for passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

2. Prior permission of the President is mandatory for its introduction.

3. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses, a joint sitting can be convened.

4. The President is obligated to give assent to the bill once it is duly passed by the Parliament.

Select the correct option:

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

1. It added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.

2. It made laws for implementing Directive Principles immune from challenge on the grounds of violating Fundamental Rights.

3. It transferred 'Forests' and 'Education' from the State List to the Union List.

4. It restored the provision for quorum in the Parliament and state legislatures.

Select the correct option:

With reference to the scope and nature of amendments under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

i. The process for amending the Constitution was borrowed from the South African Constitution.
ii. The power to initiate a constitutional amendment is vested exclusively in the Parliament.
iii. Amendments made by a simple majority of Parliament, such as the creation of new states, are not considered amendments under Article 368.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the various types of special majorities required in the Indian Parliament:

i. The impeachment of the President requires a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in each House.
ii. The removal of a Supreme Court judge requires a majority of the total membership of the House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
iii. A resolution for the creation of a new All-India Service requires a two-thirds majority of the total membership of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Analyze the following statements concerning the provisions for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law):

i. A nominated member is disqualified if they join any political party within six months of taking their seat in the House.
ii. An independent member is disqualified if they join any political party at any point after their election.
iii. The provision exempting disqualification in case of a 'split' (one-third of members) was omitted by the 91st Amendment Act.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Regarding the key changes introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, consider the following:

i. It made it compulsory for the President to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill.
ii. It restored the original five-year term for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
iii. It empowered the President to send back the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration once.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

With reference to the procedural requirements for a constitutional amendment bill affecting the federal structure of India, consider the following statements:

i. The bill must be passed by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
ii. It requires ratification by the legislatures of at least three-fourths of the states.
iii. The state legislatures must ratify the bill using a special majority.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Examine the following statements about President’s Rule under Article 356.

a. The President’s Rule can be extended beyond one year only if a National Emergency is in operation and the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held.

b. The Parliament cannot delegate the power to make laws for a state under President’s Rule to any authority other than the President.

Examine the following statements about Financial Emergency under Article 360.

a. A Financial Emergency has been declared in India at least once since the Constitution came into force.

b. The President can issue directions to reserve all money bills passed by state legislatures for his consideration during a Financial Emergency.

Consider the following statements about the differences between Articles 358 and 359 of the Indian Constitution.

1. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only during an External Emergency, while Article 359 applies to both External and Internal Emergencies.

2. Article 358 automatically suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19, while Article 359 requires a Presidential Order to suspend the enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights.

3. Article 359 allows the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 during an emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the historical instances of National Emergency in India.

1. The first National Emergency was declared in 1962 due to the Indo-China War and was revoked in 1968.

2. The second and third National Emergencies were both lifted on March 21, 1977.

3. The Shah Commission was appointed to inquire into the atrocities during the National Emergency of 1971.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constitution?

Consider the following statements about President’s Rule in Indian states.

1. The first state to experience President’s Rule after the enactment of the Constitution was Punjab in 1951.

2. Kerala has experienced President’s Rule seven times, with the longest period being from 1964 to 1967.

3. Manipur holds the record for the most instances of President’s Rule, imposed 11 times.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the judicial review of emergency provisions.

1. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from judicial review.

2. The Minerva Mills case (1980) held that a National Emergency proclamation can be challenged on grounds of malafide or irrelevance.

3. The satisfaction of the President in imposing President’s Rule under Article 356 is beyond judicial review after the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Right to Freedom of Religion is guaranteed under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

Consider the following statements about the effects of a Financial Emergency under Article 360.

1. The President can issue directions to reduce the salaries of Supreme Court and High Court judges during a Financial Emergency.

2. A Financial Emergency requires parliamentary approval within two months and continues indefinitely until revoked.

3. The reservation of state money bills for the President’s consideration is a mandatory provision during a Financial Emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct about the differences between Articles 358 and 359?

(i) Article 358 applies only to External Emergencies, while Article 359 applies to both External and Internal Emergencies.

(ii) Article 358 automatically suspends Article 19, while Article 359 requires a Presidential Order to suspend specified Fundamental Rights.

(iii) Article 358 allows the suspension of Articles 20 and 21, while Article 359 does not.

Which of the following statements are correct about the judicial review of emergency provisions?

(i) The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune from judicial review.

(ii) The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored judicial review of National Emergency proclamations.

(iii) The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) held that a National Emergency proclamation cannot be challenged on any grounds.

Consider the following statements about the amendments affecting emergency provisions.

(i) The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of both National Emergency and President’s Rule immune from judicial review.

(ii) The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored judicial review for both National Emergency and President’s Rule.

(iii) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 extended the duration of a National Emergency indefinitely without parliamentary approval.

Consider the following statements about the historical imposition of President’s Rule in Kerala.

(i) Kerala experienced President’s Rule seven times, with the last instance in 1982.

(ii) The longest period of President’s Rule in Kerala was from 1964 to 1967.

(iii) The first imposition of President’s Rule in Kerala was in 1959.