No.1 PSC Learning App
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)?
(i) It recommended the establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution.
(ii) It suggested that governors should be appointed from among persons with long experience in public life and administration.
(iii) It proposed that the All-India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS) should be abolished.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Sarkaria Commission.
(i) It was a three-member commission appointed in 1983 to examine Centre-state relations.
(ii) It recommended that the residuary powers of taxation should remain with the Parliament.
(iii) All 247 recommendations of the commission were rejected by the Central government.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the West Bengal Memorandum of 1977.
(i) It proposed replacing the word ‘union’ with ‘federal’ in the Constitution.
(ii) It recommended that 75% of the Centre’s total revenue from all sources be allocated to the states.
(iii) The memorandum was fully accepted by the Central government.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anandpur Sahib Resolution.
(i) It was adopted by the Akali Dal in 1973 and demanded that the Centre’s jurisdiction be limited to defence, foreign affairs, communications, and currency.
(ii) It proposed that the Constitution should be federal, ensuring equal authority and representation for all states at the Centre.
(iii) The resolution was fully endorsed by the Central government.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Rajamannar Committee.
(i) It was appointed by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969 to suggest amendments for greater state autonomy.
(ii) The committee recommended the abolition of Articles 356, 357, and 365 of the Constitution.
(iii) The Central government fully accepted and implemented the committee’s recommendations.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) and its recommendations on Centre-State relations.
(i) The First Administrative Reforms Commission was appointed in 1966 under the chairmanship of Morarji Desai, followed by K. Hanumanthayya.
(ii) The ARC constituted a study team under M.C. Setalvad to examine Centre-State relations.
(iii) The ARC recommended the abolition of All-India Services like IAS, IPS, and IFoS to enhance state autonomy.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Relations.
(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the maintenance of communication means of national or military importance.
(ii) A state legislature cannot delegate its executive functions to the Centre without the Centre’s consent.
(iii) The principle of full faith and credit applies only to judicial proceedings and not to public acts or records.
(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the maintenance of communication means of national or military importance.
(ii) A state legislature cannot delegate its executive functions to the Centre without the Centre’s consent.
(iii) The principle of full faith and credit applies only to judicial proceedings and not to public acts or records.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Relations.
(i) The President can establish an Inter-State Council to discuss matters of common interest between the Centre and states.
(ii) The mutual delegation of executive functions can occur only through an agreement between the Centre and states.
(iii) The Centre’s directions to states for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes are enforceable under Article 365.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Administrative Relations?
(i) The Centre’s executive power extends to the entire territory of India for matters in the Union List.
(ii) The states have exclusive executive power over all matters in the Concurrent List unless specified otherwise.
(iii) The Centre can issue directions to states for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.
(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the construction and maintenance of communication means declared to be of national or military importance.
(ii) The Centre’s directions to states under Article 256 are enforceable only through persuasion, not coercion.
(iii) The states are obligated to provide adequate facilities for mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority groups.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.
(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the construction and maintenance of communication means declared to be of national or military importance.
(ii) The Centre’s directions to states under Article 256 are enforceable only through persuasion, not coercion.
(iii) The states are obligated to provide adequate facilities for mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority groups.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.
(i) The executive power of the Centre extends to matters in the Union List and to the exercise of rights, authority, and jurisdiction conferred by treaties or agreements.
(ii) The executive power of the states is restricted to their territorial jurisdiction over matters in the State List only.
(iii) For matters in the Concurrent List, the executive power lies with the Centre unless specified otherwise by the Constitution or parliamentary law.
Consider the following statements regarding legislation for international agreements and residuary powers.
(i) Under Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on State List matters to implement international treaties or agreements.
(ii) The residuary powers of legislation, including residuary taxes, are vested exclusively in the Parliament.
(iii) The state legislatures can legislate on residuary matters for Union Territories.
Consider the following statements regarding the Centre’s control over state legislation.
(i) The President enjoys an absolute veto over state bills reserved by the Governor for his consideration.
(ii) During a financial emergency, the Centre can direct states to reserve all bills for the President’s consideration.
(iii) Non-compliance with the Centre’s directions under Article 365 can lead to the imposition of President’s rule under Article 356.
Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative subjects.
(i) The Union List has precedence over both the State List and the Concurrent List in case of a conflict.
(ii) The state legislature has exclusive power to legislate on any matter in the State List, except in Union Territories.
(iii) The Concurrent List originally contained 52 subjects, which has now been reduced to 47 subjects.
Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary legislation in the state field.
(i) Under Article 249, a Rajya Sabha resolution allows Parliament to legislate on a State List matter for one year, renewable annually.
(ii) Under Article 252, a law enacted by Parliament can be amended or repealed by the state legislatures of the concerned states.
(iii) During President’s rule, Parliament can legislate on State List matters, and such laws continue after the President’s rule ends.
Consider the following statements regarding the territorial jurisdiction of legislation under the Indian Constitution.
(i) The Parliament’s laws are not applicable in the scheduled areas of a state unless directed by the Governor.
(ii) The President can make regulations for Union Territories like Puducherry only when its Assembly is suspended or dissolved.
(iii) The Governor of Assam can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to tribal areas in the state with specified modifications.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legislative powers during a national emergency?
(i) The Parliament can legislate on State List matters during a proclamation of national emergency under Article 250.
(ii) Laws made by Parliament under Article 250 remain in force indefinitely after the emergency ceases.
(iii) The state legislature’s power to legislate on the same matter is not restricted during a national emergency.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding parliamentary legislation in the state field?
(i) Under Article 249, a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha remains in force for one year and can be renewed multiple times.
(ii) Under Article 252, a law passed by Parliament applies only to states that have consented, but other states can adopt it later.
(iii) During President’s rule, laws made by Parliament on State List subjects cease to operate once the President’s rule ends.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the territorial extent of legislation under the Indian Constitution?
(i) The Parliament can make extraterritorial laws applicable to Indian citizens and their property worldwide.
(ii) A state legislature’s laws are applicable only within the state, except when a sufficient nexus exists with the object of the legislation.
(iii) The President can make regulations for Union Territories like Andaman and Nicobar Islands with the same force as an act of Parliament.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the distribution of legislative subjects under the Indian Constitution.
(i) The Union List currently contains 98 subjects, while the State List contains 59 subjects.
(ii) The Concurrent List allows both the Parliament and state legislatures to make laws, but in case of a conflict, the state law prevails if it has received the President’s assent.
(iii) The Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters in the State List for Union Territories.
Consider the following:
Statement: The Governor of Assam can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to tribal areas in the state.
Assertion: This power is exclusive to the Governor of Assam and not shared with the President.
Which of the following is correct?
Statement: The Parliament can legislate on State List matters during a proclamation of national emergency.
Assertion: Such laws remain in force indefinitely unless repealed by the state legislature.
Which of the following is correct?
With reference to the Centre’s control over state legislation, consider the following statements:
The Governor can reserve any state bill for the President’s consideration, who holds an absolute veto over it.
A state bill restricting freedom of trade and commerce requires prior presidential permission under Article 304.
During a financial emergency, all state bills must be reserved for the President’s consideration.
The Centre can issue directions to states to ensure compliance with parliamentary laws under Article 365.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to parliamentary legislation in the State List, consider the following statements:
A Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
Laws made by Parliament under Article 252 can be amended or repealed by state legislatures.
During President’s rule, laws made by Parliament on State List matters remain in force indefinitely unless repealed by the state legislature.
Parliament can legislate on State List matters to implement international agreements without state consent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the territorial extent of legislative powers in India, consider the following statements:
The Parliament can make extraterritorial laws applicable to Indian citizens and their property worldwide.
State laws are applicable only within the state’s territory unless there is a sufficient nexus with an object outside the state.
The President can repeal or amend parliamentary acts in relation to Union Territories like Lakshadweep.
The Governor of a state can exempt scheduled areas from all parliamentary laws without exception.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Match the following legislative provisions with their corresponding articles or contexts in the Indian Constitution.
i. Residuary powers of legislation
ii. Parliamentary legislation during a national emergency
iii. Centre’s control over state legislation through President’s assent
iv. Legislation for implementing international agreements
a. Article 248
b. Article 253
c. Articles 200 and 201
d. Article 250
ഇന്ത്യൻ ഭരണഘടനയുടെ ആർട്ടിക്കിൾ 1 ലെ 'യൂണിയൻ ഓഫ് സ്റ്റേറ്റ്സ് 'എന്ന വാചകം സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നത്
1 .ഇന്ത്യൻ ഫെഡറേഷൻ യൂണിറ്റുകളുടെ കരാറിൻ്റെ ഫലമല്ല
2 .ഇന്ത്യയിൽ സംസ്ഥാനങ്ങൾക്ക് യൂണിയനിൽ നിന്ന് വേർപെടുത്താം
മുകളിൽ പറഞ്ഞവയിൽ ഏതാണ് ശരി ?
ഇക്കൂട്ടത്തിൽ, ലക്ഷ്യപ്രമേയത്തിലെ പ്രധാന ഇനങ്ങളിൽ ഉൾപ്പെടുന്നവ ഏതൊക്കെ ?
1) ഇന്ത്യ ഒരു സ്വതന്ത്ര പരമാധികാര റിപ്പബ്ലിക്കാണ്.
2) മുൻ ബ്രിട്ടിഷ് ഇന്ത്യൻ പ്രദേശങ്ങൾ, നാട്ടുരാജ്യങ്ങൾ, ഇന്ത്യയിൽ ചേരാൻ ആഗ്രഹിക്കുന്ന മറ്റു പ്രദേശങ്ങൾ എന്നിവയുടെ ഒരു യുണിയനായിരിക്കും ഇന്ത്യ
3) ഇന്ത്യൻ യൂണിയനിൽപ്പെട്ട പ്രദേശങ്ങൾ സ്വയംഭരണാധികാരമുള്ളവയായിരിക്കും. യൂണിയനിൽ നിക്ഷിപ്തമായ വിഷയങ്ങളടക്കം എല്ലാ കാര്യങ്ങളിലും ഈ പ്രദേശങ്ങൾക്ക് അധികാരമുണ്ടായിരിക്കും.
4) സ്വതന്ത്ര പരമാധികാര ഇന്ത്യയുടെയും അതിൻ്റെ ഭരണഘടനയുടെയും സർവ അധികാരങ്ങളും നീതിന്യായ വ്യവസ്ഥയിൽനിന്നാണു സിദ്ധിക്കുക.
Which of the following territorial jurisdiction is covered by the Guwahati High court?
1. Assam
2. Mizoram
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Nagaland