No.1 PSC Learning App
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the constitutional basis and scope of the State Finance Commission (SFC).
The SFC is a constitutional body established under Article 243-I to review the financial position of Panchayats and under Article 243-Y for Municipalities.
The SFC's recommendations are exclusively focused on the distribution of taxes and do not cover grants-in-aid from the state.
Assertion (A): The Quit India Movement, launched in 1942, was a spontaneous mass uprising.
Reason (R): On the eve of the movement, Gandhiji and all major Congress leaders were arrested, leaving the movement leaderless.
Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission (SFC):
i. The SFC is a statutory body established by an Act of the State Legislature.
ii. It is constituted by the Governor of the state every five years.
iii. Its primary mandate is to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the features of the State Finance Commission's report:
The report is submitted to the Chief Minister for review before being sent to the Governor.
The report, when tabled in the legislature, must be accompanied by a document explaining the government's action on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding specific provisions for the SFC:
The provision that members may be appointed on a part-time basis offers flexibility in securing expert services.
The provision for re-appointment allows for continuity and utilization of acquired experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the core functions of the State Finance Commission:
Recommending the principles for sharing state taxes with Panchayats.
Determining the taxes and duties which may be assigned to Panchayats.
Conducting an annual audit of the State's Consolidated Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and tenure of SFC members:
Members are appointed by the Governor of the state.
The tenure of each member is fixed at five years by the Constitution.
Every member is eligible for re-appointment after their term ends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Read each of the following two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are not automatically binding on the state government.
Reason (R): The Constitution requires the Governor to lay the report before the legislature along with an 'explanatory memorandum' detailing the action taken, which implies the government has the discretion to accept, reject, or modify the recommendations.
The qualifications for the members of the State Finance Commission emphasize expertise in:
Economics and Financial Matters.
Public and Local Administration.
Judicial and Legal Procedures.
Government and Local Body Accounts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body.
Statement II: It is established to recommend principles for financial devolution from the state government to urban and rural local bodies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Consider the following statements about the reporting procedure of the State Finance Commission:
The Commission submits its report with recommendations directly to the State Legislature.
The Governor must lay the report before the State Legislative Assembly.
The report must be accompanied by a memorandum explaining the action taken by the government on its recommendations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The State Finance Commission has the power to require any person to furnish information on relevant matters.
Reason (R): This power is crucial for the Commission to conduct a comprehensive and evidence-based review of the financial position of the Panchayats.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The recommendations submitted by the State Finance Commission to the Governor include principles governing:
The sharing of net income of state-levied taxes between the Government and Panchayats.
The appointment of executive officers for the Panchayats.
The taxes, duties, cesses, and fees which may be marked for and expended by the Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following two statements regarding the term and resignation of a member of the State Finance Commission:
Statement I: A member of the Commission holds office for a period specified in the appointment order by the Governor and is not eligible for re-appointment.
Statement II: A member’s resignation, addressed to the Governor, is effective immediately upon its submission.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Match List-I (Provision/Function) with List-II (Description) and select the correct answer.
List-I (Provision/Function) | List-II (Description) |
A. Grants-in-Aid | 1. Power derived from the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 |
B. Explanatory Memorandum | 2. Criteria for financial aid to Panchayats from the State Consolidated Fund |
C. Summoning witnesses | 3. Eligibility for a member to serve another term |
D. Re-appointment | 4. Document detailing government's action on the Commission's report |
The State Finance Commission, in the performance of its functions, has the powers of a Civil Court for which of the following matters?
Summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses.
Imposing penalties for financial mismanagement.
Requiring the production of any document.
Requisitioning any public record from any office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the State Finance Commission:
The Commission shall consist of a chairman and a maximum of three other members.
The state government determines the number of members in the Commission.
The members of the Commission must be appointed on a full-time basis.
One member must have experience in public administration or local administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following statements are correct about the Audit Board under the CAG?
i. The Audit Board was established in 1968 based on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Committee.
ii. The Audit Board consists of a chairman and two members appointed by the CAG.
iii. The Audit Board audits all government and semi-government institutions without requiring technical expertise.
iv. The Audit Board is responsible for appointing persons with technical knowledge in fields like engineering and chemicals for audits.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Finance Commission of India?
i. The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members appointed by the President.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Union government.
iii. The Finance Commission recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to support panchayats and municipalities.
iv. The qualifications of the Finance Commission members are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Attorney General of India?
i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President based on the advice of the government.
ii. The Attorney General has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament without voting rights.
iii. The Attorney General’s term of office is fixed by the Constitution for six years or until the age of 65.
iv. The Attorney General cannot defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without government permission.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
i. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
ii. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President: on appropriation accounts, finance accounts, and public undertakings.
iii. The CAG can audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:
i. The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years or earlier if deemed necessary.
ii. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government of India.
iii. The Finance Commission makes recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States.
iv. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be a person with experience in public affairs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
i. The Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office at the pleasure of the President.
ii. The Attorney General is a full-time government servant and is debarred from private legal practice.
iii. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
iv. The Attorney General is a member of the Central Cabinet and advises the Prime Minister directly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the powers and limitations of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG can inspect any office or department subject to its audit and call for any records or documents.
ii. The CAG has control over fund withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
iii. The CAG cannot demand details of secret service expenditure and must accept a certificate from the competent authority.
iv. The CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the duties of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
ii. The CAG has the authority to audit the accounts of private companies not financed by the government.
iii. The CAG advises the President on the form in which the accounts of the Centre and States shall be kept.
iv. The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts directly to the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the role and independence of the CAG, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG is described as the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the Centre and State levels.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following a resolution by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
iii. The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State after ceasing to hold office.
iv. The administrative expenses of the CAG’s office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG’s term of office is 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
ii. The CAG can be removed by the President without parliamentary approval.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of all government companies as per the Companies Act.
iv. The CAG’s salary is equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG’s audit reports on appropriation accounts are submitted to the Governor of each state.
ii. The CAG certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty under Article 279, and this certificate is final.
iii. The CAG was relieved of maintaining Central Government accounts in 1976 due to the separation of accounts from audit.
iv. The CAG can demand details of secret service expenditure from executive agencies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements:
i. The CAG audits all receipts and expenditures of bodies substantially financed from central or state revenues.
ii. The CAG has the authority to prescribe the form of accounts for the Centre and states under Article 150.
iii. The CAG audits the accounts of private companies not receiving government funds.
iv. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
i. The CAG is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any state after ceasing to hold office.
ii. The CAG’s salary can be altered to his/her disadvantage after appointment.
iii. The CAG’s administrative powers over the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the President after consultation with the CAG.
iv. The CAG holds office at the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
The CAG is appointed by the President of India and can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
The CAG’s salary and administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, not subject to parliamentary vote.
The CAG has the authority to control withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
The CAG submits audit reports on state accounts to the President, who presents them to the Parliament.
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
1. Prohibits all kinds of employment of children below the age of eighteen.
2. Prohibits all kinds of employment of female children below the age of eighteen.
3. Regulates employment of children above the age of fourteen in some kinds of employment.
4. Defines a 'child' to be a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Doctrine of Pleasure?
i. The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without any notice.
ii. The Doctrine of Pleasure is based on the British Crown’s prerogative and has been adopted without modifications in India.
iii. Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants.
iv. The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner is subject to the pleasure of the President.
v. The Supreme Court in State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) held that the English Common Law was adopted in its entirety for the Doctrine of Pleasure.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
i. The CAT was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.
ii. The CAT has jurisdiction over members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
iii. The Principal Bench of the CAT is located in Ernakulam.
iv. The Chairman of the CAT serves a tenure of 4 years or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier.
v. Appeals against CAT orders can now be made to the High Courts following the Chandra Kumar case (1997).
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B?
i. Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by the Parliament.
ii. Tribunals under Article 323B can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures.
iii. A hierarchy of tribunals is mandatory under Article 323A.
iv. Article 323B covers disputes related to taxation, land reforms, and elections.
v. The Chandra Kumar case (1997) upheld the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction for tribunals under both Articles 323A and 323B.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the appointment and tenure in the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
i. The Chairman of the CAT must be at least 50 years old at the time of appointment.
ii. The post of Vice-Chairman was removed by the Administrative Tribunals Amendment Act, 2006.
iii. Members of the CAT serve a tenure of 4 years or until the age of 65.
iv. The appointment of the Chairman and Members is made by the Central Government based on recommendations of a search-cum-selection committee.
v. The CAT is bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908 for its proceedings.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about State Administrative Tribunals (SATs)?
i. SATs can only be established by the Central Government upon the request of State Governments.
ii. SATs exercise original jurisdiction over recruitment and service matters of state government employees.
iii. Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) can be established for two or more states.
iv. The Chairman and Members of SATs are appointed by the State Government.
v. SATs were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
i. The CAT was established in 1985 under Article 323A.
ii. The CAT has 19 benches across India, with the Principal Bench in New Delhi.
iii. The CAT has jurisdiction over secretarial staff of Parliament and officers of the Supreme Court.
iv. The first Chairman of the CAT was Justice K. Madhava Reddy.
v. Appeals against CAT orders can only be made to the Supreme Court.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure?
i. The Doctrine of Pleasure is derived from the British legal system but modified for India.
ii. Article 310 applies to members of All India Services and Civil Posts under the Centre and States.
iii. The tenure of High Court Judges is subject to the pleasure of the President.
iv. The Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy.
v. Article 311 provides safeguards to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
i. The CAT was established in 1985 under Article 323A.
ii. The CAT has 19 benches across India, with the Principal Bench in New Delhi.
iii. The CAT has jurisdiction over secretarial staff of Parliament and officers of the Supreme Court.
iv. The first Chairman of the CAT was Justice K. Madhava Reddy.
v. Appeals against CAT orders can only be made to the Supreme Court.
Which of the following statements are correct about Tribunals under Article 323B?
i. Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals.
ii. Tribunals under Article 323B cover disputes related to taxation, foreign exchange, and land reforms.
iii. A hierarchy of tribunals is not required under Article 323B.
iv. The Chandra Kumar case (1997) upheld the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction for Article 323B tribunals.
v. Tribunals under Article 323B can be established for disputes related to elections to Parliament and Legislative Assemblies.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?
i. The Act empowers the Central Government to establish both Central and State Administrative Tribunals.
ii. The Act allows the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) for two or more states.
iii. The CAT is bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908 for its proceedings.
iv. The Act was passed in accordance with Article 323A of the Constitution.
v. The Chairman and Members of the CAT are appointed by the State Government.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Chandra Kumar case (1997)?
i. It declared the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction under Articles 323A and 323B unconstitutional.
ii. It allowed appeals against CAT orders to be made to the Division Bench of the concerned High Court.
iii. It upheld the restriction that appeals against CAT orders could only be made to the Supreme Court.
iv. It emphasized that judicial review is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
v. It ruled that SATs cannot exercise original jurisdiction over state government employees.
Assertion (A): The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate the services of civil servants at their discretion.
Reason (R): Article 311 imposes restrictions on the Doctrine of Pleasure to prevent arbitrary dismissals.
Assertion (A): The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
Reason (R): The CAT follows the principles of natural justice in its proceedings.
Assertion (A): The Chandra Kumar case (1997) restored the jurisdiction of High Courts over appeals from the Central Administrative Tribunal.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court held that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Assertion (A): Tribunals under Article 323B require a hierarchy of tribunals to be established.
Reason (R): Article 323B deals with tribunals for matters like taxation, land reforms, and elections, which require structured adjudication.