No.1 PSC Learning App
Consider the following statements regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment (GST).
Article 279A was added to establish the GST Council.
The amendment repealed Article 268A to streamline GST implementation.
The GST Bill was signed by the President on 1 July 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding cooperative societies under the 97th Amendment.
The board of a cooperative society can be superseded for up to six months in case of persistent default or negligence.
The State Legislature has no role in determining the number of board members of a cooperative society.
Members of a cooperative society have the right to access its books, information, and accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the 91st and 97th Constitutional Amendments.
The 91st Amendment added Article 361B to the Constitution.
The 97th Amendment made the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right under Article 19(c).
The 91st Amendment allows disqualification of members who join a political party merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment?
i. The 106th Amendment is also known as the Nari Shakti Vandana Adhiniyam.
ii. It ensures 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
iii. The 106th Amendment was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Thawar Chand Gehlot.
iv. The amendment received Presidential assent on 28 September 2023.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 104th and 105th Constitutional Amendments?
i. The 104th Amendment extended reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures until January 2030.
ii. The 105th Amendment restored the States’ right to prepare a list of socially and economically backward classes.
iii. The 104th Amendment abolished reservations for Anglo-Indian representatives in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures.
iv. The 105th Amendment was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 12 December 2019.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding offences and penalties under the 97th Amendment for cooperative societies?
i. Wilfully making a false return or furnishing false information by a cooperative society is an offence.
ii. Failure to hand over custody of books, accounts, or other property by an officer is considered an offence.
iii. The State Legislature has no authority to define offences or penalties for cooperative societies.
iv. Adopting corrupt practices during elections of cooperative society board members is an offence.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 102nd and 103rd Constitutional Amendments?
i. The 102nd Amendment introduced Article 338B, establishing the National Commission for Backward Classes.
ii. The 103rd Amendment provides for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections under Articles 15(6) and 16(6).
iii. The 102nd Amendment was passed in the Lok Sabha on 10 April 2017 and received Presidential assent on 12 January 2019.
iv. The first state to implement the 103rd Amendment’s reservation for economically backward classes was Gujarat.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment (GST)?
i. The 101st Amendment empowered both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws for levying GST simultaneously.
ii. Article 268A was repealed by the 101st Amendment.
iii. The GST Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 3 August 2016 and by the Lok Sabha on 8 August 2016.
iv. The GST Council was established under Article 246A.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the election and management of cooperative societies under the 97th Amendment. i. Elections for the board of a cooperative society must be conducted before the expiry of the current board’s term.
ii. Functional directors of a cooperative society are included in the 21-member board limit.
iii. The administrator appointed during the supersession of a board must arrange elections within six months.
iv. The State Legislature has no role in the conduct of elections for cooperative society boards.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the anti-defection law and cooperative societies.
i. The 91st Amendment amended Articles 75 and 164, and added Article 361B to the Constitution.
ii. The 97th Amendment mandates that cooperative societies file returns within six months of the financial year, including an audited statement of accounts. i
ii. The 52nd Amendment (1985) allowed members who did not join a party merger to avoid disqualification under the anti-defection law.
iv. The 97th Amendment allows the supersession of a cooperative society’s board even if there is no government shareholding or financial assistance.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 97th Amendment and cooperative societies.
i. Part IX-B of the Constitution, added by the 97th Amendment, includes Articles 243 ZH to 243 ZT.
ii. The annual general body meeting of cooperative societies must be held within three months of the financial year’s end.
iii. The State Legislature may provide for cooperative education and training for members.
iv. A cooperative society’s board can be superseded for up to one year in case of persistent default.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the provisions of cooperative societies under the 97th Amendment.
i. The maximum number of board members of a cooperative society is 21, as per Article 243 ZJ.
ii. Co-opted members of a cooperative society board have the right to vote in elections of office bearers.
iii. The term of office for elected board members of a cooperative society is 5 years.
iv. The State Legislature determines the number of board members and reserves seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 91st and 97th Constitutional Amendments.
i. The 91st Amendment (2003) amended the 10th Schedule to disqualify members who stay away from a political party merger under the anti-defection law.
ii. The 97th Amendment (2012) added Article 43B to promote voluntary formation, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies.
iii. The 91st Amendment received Presidential assent on 12 January 2012. iv. The 97th Amendment inserted the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right under Article 19(c).
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ലോക്പാൽ പ്രസ്ഥാനവുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട് താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിഗണിക്കുക:
(i) "ലോക്പാൽ" എന്ന പദം 1963-ൽ എൽ.എം. സിംഗ്വി രൂപീകരിച്ചതാണ്.
(ii) ഒന്നാം ഭരണപരിഷ്കാര കമ്മീഷൻ 1966-ൽ ലോക്പാൽ സ്ഥാപിക്കാൻ ശുപാർശ ചെയ്തു.
(iii) അണ്ണാ ഹസാരെയുടെ നിരാഹാര സമരം സംഘടിപ്പിച്ചത് ജനതന്ത്ര മോർച്ചയുടെ ബാനറിലായിരുന്നു.
മുകളിൽ നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ഏതാണ്/ഏതൊക്കെയാണ് ശരി?
ഓംബുഡ്സ്മാനുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട് താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിഗണിക്കുക:
(i) ഓംബുഡ്സ്മാൻ എന്ന ആശയം 1809-ൽ സ്വീഡനിൽ ഉത്ഭവിച്ചു.
(ii) ഓംബുഡ്സ്മാനെ സ്വീകരിച്ച ആദ്യ കോമൺവെൽത്ത് രാജ്യം 1962-ൽ ന്യൂസിലാൻഡ് ആയിരുന്നു.
(iii) ഇന്ത്യയിൽ, RBI ഓംബുഡ്സ്മാനെ 5 വർഷത്തേക്ക് നിയമിക്കുന്നു.
മുകളിൽ നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ഏതാണ്/ഏതൊക്കെയാണ് ശരി?
Regarding the voting age and election basis in India, choose the correct statements:
Adult suffrage for elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies is guaranteed under Article 326.
The voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment passed in 1989.
The first Indian state to conduct elections based on adult suffrage was Kerala.
Select the correct answer:
Consider the following statements on the National Voters' Day and milestones of the Election Commission:
The Election Commission celebrated its Golden Jubilee in 2001.
National Voters' Day is observed on 25th January every year since 2011.
The headquarters of the Election Commission is Nirvachan Sadan, Mumbai.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Regarding the Election Commission’s composition and appointments, which of the following statements are correct?
Originally a single-member body, the Election Commission became a multi-member body post-1989.
The Chief Election Commissioner is always the senior-most Election Commissioner.
The President appoints Election Commissioners based on Constitution’s Article 324.
Select the correct answer:
Consider the following statements related to the tenure and removal of Election Commissioners:
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
Other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
The President determines the term of service for all Election Commissioners without any constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution and functioning of the Election Commission of India:
The Election Commission was constituted under Articles 324 to 329 of the Indian Constitution.
The Chief Election Commissioner has more powers than other Election Commissioners.
The superintendence, direction, and control of all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, President, and Vice-President are vested in the Election Commission under Article 324(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following about the powers and duties of the Election Commission:
The Election Commission can disqualify candidates for failing to submit election expense accounts.
The Election Commission can advise the President and Governors on post-election disqualifications.
The Election Commission regulates the party symbol allotment and conducts a quasi-judicial function in party disputes.
Regarding the Election Commission’s power under Article 329 of the Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?
Courts cannot question the validity of laws relating to delimitation of constituencies.
Election results can be challenged only through election petitions as provided by the legislature.
Elections to local bodies can be challenged in the Supreme Court directly.
Consider the following statements related to the 61st Constitutional Amendment:
It lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
The amendment came into force in 1989.
Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister when it was passed.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘None of the Above’ (NOTA) option in Indian elections?
NOTA was first implemented worldwide in France.
In India, NOTA was made mandatory on ballot papers by Supreme Court in 2013.
If NOTA receives most votes, new elections must be held with new candidates.
Consider the following statements regarding the State Election Commission:
The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
The tenure of the State Election Commissioner is 5 years or till age 65, whichever is earlier.
The State Election Commissioner can be removed only on grounds and procedure similar to High Court Judges.
Consider the functions of the District Election Officer (DEO) and Returning Officer (RO). Which of the following statements are correct?
The DEO supervises election work in a district.
The RO conducts elections in its respective Parliamentary or Assembly constituency.
DEO appoints presiding and polling officers in Union Territories.
Regarding the conditions for a party to be recognized as a National Party in India, which of the following is/are true?
Party secures 6% of valid votes in any four or more states and wins 4 Lok Sabha seats.
Party wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats across the country with candidates elected from at least three states.
Party is recognized as State Party in 2 states.
Which of the following statements about the tenure and removal of Election Commissioners are correct?
Chief Election Commissioner has a fixed 6-year tenure or till age 65, whichever is earlier.
Other Election Commissioners can be removed only on recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
The President can unilaterally remove any Election Commissioner.
Which of the following powers does the Election Commission possess?
Power to prepare and revise electoral rolls.
Power to cancel polls in case of electoral malpractice.
Power to determine the maximum number of political parties allowed in elections.
Power to grant recognition and allot election symbols to political parties.
Which of the following statements about the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner are correct?
The appointment is made by the President of India.
The 2023 Bill mandates that appointees must have held a post equivalent to Secretary to Government of India.
The Search Committee preparing the panel is headed by the Minister of Law and Justice.
The Chief Justice of India is a permanent member of the Selection Committee for appointments now.
Consider the following statements regarding NOTA (None of the Above) option:
NOTA allows voters to reject all candidates and such votes can invalidate the election.
NOTA was mandated by the Supreme Court in 2013 and introduced in electronic voting machines soon after.
The NOTA button’s original color was pink, later changed to white for parliamentary elections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
4. Consider the following statements on the Election Commission’s jurisdiction:
(i) It conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and offices of President and Vice-President.
(ii) The Election Commission has control over elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
(iii) The State Election Commissions are independent of Election Commission of India and handle local body elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Consider the following statements on Article 324 of the Constitution:
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures in the Election Commission.
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners based on recommendations of a selection committee consisting of the PM, Leader of Opposition, and Chief Justice of India (CJI).
Only the Chief Election Commissioner acts as chairman and has veto power over other Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and removal of Election Commissioners:
The term of office for Election Commissioners is 6 years or until they attain 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.
The President can remove any Election Commissioner without consulting the Chief Election Commissioner.
The Chief Election Commissioner holds equal powers as other Election Commissioners in decision making.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ഇന്ത്യൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പ് കമ്മീഷനെ സംബന്ധിച്ച് താഴെ പറയുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിഗണിക്കുക:
ചീഫ് ഇലക്ഷൻ കമ്മീഷണറെ നിയമിക്കുന്നത് ഇന്ത്യൻ രാഷ്ട്രപതിയാണ്, ഭരണഘടനയിൽ ഇതിന് പ്രത്യേക യോഗ്യതകളൊന്നും നിർദ്ദേശിച്ചിട്ടില്ല.
സുപ്രീം കോടതി ജഡ്ജിമാർക്ക് ബാധകമായ നടപടിക്രമങ്ങൾ പാലിക്കാതെ ചീഫ് ഇലക്ഷൻ കമ്മീഷണറെ പുറത്താക്കാൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പ് കമ്മീഷന് കഴിയും.
ഇന്ത്യൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പ് കമ്മീഷൻ ലോകസഭയിലേക്കുള്ള തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പുകൾ മാത്രമേ മേൽനോട്ടം ചെയ്യുന്നുള്ളൂ, സംസ്ഥാന നിയമസഭകളിലേക്കുള്ള തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പുകൾക്ക് അത് ബാധകമല്ല.
മുകളിൽ നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള പ്രസ്താവനകളിൽ ഏതാണ്/ഏവയാണ് ശരി?
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Election Commission of India?
i. The Election Commission is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 324.
ii. It has the power to conduct elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
iii. The Chief Election Commissioner has veto power over decisions made by other Election Commissioners.
iv. The Election Commission supervises elections to local self-government bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities.