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താഴെ പറയുന്ന ശീതകാല സമ്മേളനത്തിന്റെ സവിശേഷതകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക
A. മൺസൂൺ സമ്മേളനത്തിന് സമാനമായി നിയമനിർമാണം നടത്തുന്നു.
B. അടിയന്തര കാര്യങ്ങൾക്കും ബില്ലുകൾക്കും മുൻഗണന നൽകുന്നു.
C. ശീതകാല സമ്മേളനം ഫെബ്രുവരി മുതൽ മെയ് വരെ നടക്കുന്നു.
താഴെ പറയുന്ന മൺസൂൺ സമ്മേളനത്തിന്റെ പ്രധാന ലക്ഷ്യങ്ങൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക
A. ബില്ലുകൾ പാസാക്കുകയും പ്രധാനപ്പെട്ട ദേശീയ വിഷയങ്ങൾ ചർച്ച ചെയ്യുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.
B. സർക്കാർ നയങ്ങളെ സൂക്ഷ്മപരിശോധന നടത്തുകയും നിയമനിർമാണ പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ നടത്തുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.
C. മൺസൂൺ സമ്മേളനം നവംബർ മുതൽ ഡിസംബർ വരെ നടക്കുന്നു.
താഴെ പറയുന്ന ബജറ്റ് സമ്മേളനത്തിന്റെ സവിശേഷതകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക
A. ബജറ്റ് സമ്മേളനം പാർലമെന്റിന്റെ ഏറ്റവും ദൈർഘ്യമേറിയതും പ്രധാനപ്പെട്ടതുമായ സമ്മേളനമാണ്.
B. ബജറ്റ് അവതരണം, ചർച്ച, പാസാക്കൽ എന്നിവയ്ക്ക് പുറമെ മറ്റ് നിയമനിർമാണ കാര്യങ്ങൾ ചർച്ച ചെയ്യുന്നു.
C. ബജറ്റ് സമ്മേളനം ജൂലൈ മുതൽ സെപ്റ്റംബർ വരെ നടക്കുന്നു.
പാർലമെന്റ് സമ്മേളനങ്ങളെക്കുറിച്ചുള്ള അനുച്ഛേദം 85 പ്രകാരം:
A. പാർലമെന്റ് സമ്മേളനങ്ങളെക്കുറിച്ചുള്ള തീരുമാനം ക്യാബിനറ്റ് കമ്മിറ്റി എടുക്കുന്നു.
B. രാഷ്ട്രപതി പാർലമെന്റ് സമ്മേളനങ്ങൾ വിളിച്ചുകൂട്ടുന്നു.
C. വർഷത്തിൽ 2 തവണയെങ്കിലും പാർലമെന്റ് സമ്മേളിക്കണമെങ്കിലും സമ്മേളനങ്ങളുടെ കാലാവധി 12 മാസത്തിൽ കൂടരുത്.
താഴെ നൽകിയ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക:
(1) പാർലമെന്റിലെ കോറം പ്രിസൈഡിംഗ് ഓഫീസർ ഉൾപ്പെടെ ആകെ അംഗങ്ങളുടെ 1/10 ആണ്.
(2) സംസ്ഥാന നിയമസഭയിലെ കോറം 10 അംഗങ്ങളോ 1/10 ഓ അല്ലെങ്കിൽ കൂടുതലോ ആണ്.
(3) കോറം അനുച്ഛേദം 85 പ്രകാരമാണ് നിർണയിക്കുന്നത്.
താഴെ നൽകിയ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക:
(1) ബജറ്റ് സമ്മേളനം പാർലമെന്റിന്റെ ഏറ്റവും ദൈർഘ്യമേറിയതാണ്.
(2) മൺസൂൺ സമ്മേളനത്തിൽ സർക്കാർ നയങ്ങൾക്ക് സൂക്ഷ്മ പരിശോധന നടത്തുന്നു.
(3) ശീതകാല സമ്മേളനത്തിൽ അടിയന്തര കാര്യങ്ങൾക്ക് മുൻഗണന നൽകുന്നില്ല.
താഴെ നൽകിയ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ പരിശോധിക്കുക:
(1) ബജറ്റ് സമ്മേളനം ഫെബ്രുവരി മുതൽ മെയ് വരെയാണ്.
(2) മൺസൂൺ സമ്മേളനം ജൂലൈ മുതൽ സെപ്റ്റംബർ വരെ നടക്കുന്നു.
(3) ശീതകാല സമ്മേളനം ജനുവരി മുതൽ മാർച്ച് വരെയാണ്.
Consider the following statements about the State Finance Commission:
It reviews the financial position of panchayats and municipalities.
The Governor appoints its members.
It has the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Finance Commission:
It acts as a balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
Its report is submitted to the Parliament for approval.
It can recommend financial assistance to municipalities directly.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Finance Commission:
It acts as a balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
Its report is submitted to the Parliament for approval.
It can recommend financial assistance to municipalities directly.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about the State Finance Commission:
It is constituted under Article 243-I and Article 243-Y.
It consists of a maximum of five members, including the chairman.
Its recommendations are binding on the state government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about the functions of the Finance Commission:
It recommends the distribution of taxes between the Centre and States.
It supervises the tax collection mechanisms of the Union government.
It advises on measures to augment the consolidated fund of states for local bodies.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Finance Commission:
It consists of a chairman and four other members.
Members are appointed by the Prime Minister.
The qualifications of members are determined by Parliament.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission of India:
It is a constitutional body established under Article 280.
Its recommendations are binding on the Union government.
The chairman must have experience in public affairs.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s audit powers:
Statement I: The CAG can call for any records or documents from audited entities.
Statement II: The CAG has no authority to question persons in charge of audited offices.
Statement III: The CAG audits all stores and stock in government offices.
Which of the following is correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s legislative framework:
Statement I: The CAG’s duties are prescribed under the CAG’s Act, 1971.
Statement II: The CAG was relieved of compiling Central Government accounts in 1976.
Statement III: The CAG’s powers are not defined in the Constitution.
Which of the following is correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s role in financial oversight:
Statement I: The CAG audits transactions related to the Contingency Fund of India.
Statement II: The CAG audits bodies substantially financed by central or state revenues.
Statement III: The CAG has no role in auditing state public accounts.
Which of the following is correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s constitutional role:
Statement I: The CAG is described as a bulwark of India’s democratic system.
Statement II: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called the CAG the most important officer under the Constitution.
Statement III: The CAG’s role is limited to auditing central government accounts only.
Which of the following is correct?
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about Parliamentary Privileges?
(i) Parliamentary privileges are provided in Articles 105 of the Constitution.
(ii) They include freedom of speech in Parliament and immunity from legal proceedings for speeches made in the House.
(iii) These privileges are codified in detail by a specific law passed by Parliament.
(iv) Parliamentary privileges are essential to ensure independence and effectiveness of legislative functioning
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about the Fundamental Duties?
(i) Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
(ii) They are listed under Part V of the Constitution.
(iii) At present, there are 11 Fundamental Duties.
(iv) Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law.
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of Presidents of India?
(i) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iii) Dr. Zakir Husain
(iv) V. V. Giri
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about the Governor of an Indian State?
(i) The Governor is appointed by the President of India.
(ii) The Governor holds office for a fixed term of five years and cannot be removed before that.
(iii) The Governor acts as a constitutional head of the state and functions on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(iv) A Governor may simultaneously be appointed for more than one state.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about the Rajya Sabha?
(i) Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and is never subject to dissolution.
(ii) One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every second year.
(iii) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(iv) A Money Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, including Rajya Sabha
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(i) The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
(ii) The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were part of the original Constitution of 1950.
(iii) The Preamble is considered an integral part of the stitution.
(iv) The Preamble can be amended under Article 368.
No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the. Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed. This clause shall not apply
(i) Where a person is dismissed or removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge.
(ii) Where an authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to give to that person an opportunity of showing cause.
(iii) Where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State it is not expedient to hold such inquiry. ment
(iv) All the above
With reference to the types of amendments in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. Amendments by simple majority are deemed to be amendments under Article 368.
II. Provisions like the creation or abolition of legislative councils in states can be amended by simple majority.
III. The special majority for amendments involves a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:
I. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration by Parliament.
II. In case of disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on an amendment bill, a joint sitting can be held to resolve the deadlock.
III. Amendments affecting federal provisions require ratification by legislatures of at least half the states through a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements on procedural aspects of amendment bills:
State legislatures can initiate amendment bills.
No joint sitting is provided for disagreements between Houses.
The bill must be passed separately in each House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the source and structure of amendment provisions:
The concept was borrowed from South Africa.
Part XX of the Constitution deals with amendments.
Article 368 allows amendments by addition, variation, or repeal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements on the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973):
It declared that amendments cannot affect the basic structure of the Constitution.
The concept was borrowed from the US Constitution.
Parliament's power to amend is unlimited except for basic elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) (B) (C) (D)
Consider the following statements about amendments needing state consent:
They include the election of the President.
Representation of states in Parliament requires this process.
All states must consent for the amendment to pass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements on special majority amendments:
They cover Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
A joint sitting can resolve disagreements between Houses.
Vacancies in the House are excluded from 'total membership'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding provisions amendable by simple majority:
Emoluments of the President and Governors fall under this category.
Delimitation of constituencies requires special majority.
Administration of Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule) can be amended this way.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding provisions amendable by simple majority:
Emoluments of the President and Governors fall under this category.
Delimitation of constituencies requires special majority.
Administration of Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule) can be amended this way.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about amendments by simple majority of Parliament:
These are not considered amendments under Article 368.
They include provisions on the creation of new states.
They require ratification by state legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements on the President's role in constitutional amendments:
The President can withhold assent to an amendment bill.
The 24th Amendment Act of 1971 mandates the President's assent.
The bill can be returned for reconsideration by Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Consider the following statements concerning ratification by state legislatures:
Ratification is needed only for amendments altering federal provisions.
It requires approval by half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
There is a prescribed time limit within which states must ratify or reject the bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about the special majority required for amending the Constitution:
It requires a majority of the total membership of the House and two-thirds of the members present and voting.
'Total membership' includes vacant seats and absentees.
This majority applies only to amendments affecting Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the initiation of a constitutional amendment bill under Article 368:
The bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
Prior permission of the President is required for introducing the bill.
The bill can be introduced by a private member without ministerial involvement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?