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Consider the following statements about the classification of State Services:

  1. State Services are classified into Class-I to Class-IV, with Class-I and Class-II being gazetted.

  2. The Chief Secretary of the State heads the civil service administration in each State.

  3. Officers for State Services are appointed by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding Article 311 of the Indian Constitution:

  1. Article 311(1) ensures that a civil servant cannot be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them.

  2. Article 311(2) mandates an inquiry before dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank, except in cases of criminal conviction or state security concerns.

  3. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 provided for a second opportunity for civil servants to make representations against proposed punishments.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

  1. Half of the UPSC members must have held office for at least ten years under the Government of India or a State Government.

  2. The UPSC’s recommendations are binding on the Union Government.

  3. The President can exclude certain posts and matters from the UPSC’s purview through regulations laid before Parliament.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the All India Services:

  1. The All India Services are controlled jointly by the Central and State Governments, with ultimate control vested in the Central Government.

  2. Officers of the All India Services are appointed to various State cadres but cannot work in Central Services.

  3. The All India Services Act, 1951, mandates that at least one-third of senior posts in these services be filled by promotion from State Services.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the All India Judicial Service?

  1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 provided for the creation of an All India Judicial Service.

  2. The All India Judicial Service includes posts inferior to that of a district judge.

  3. A law creating the All India Judicial Service does not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?

  1. The UPSC is an independent constitutional body directly created by the Constitution.

  2. The chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.

  3. The UPSC is responsible for cadre management and training of All India Services officers.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the constitutional provisions for civil services?

  1. Article 309 empowers Parliament and State Legislatures to regulate the appointment and conditions of service of public servants.

  2. Article 310 states that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor, as applicable.

  3. Article 311 provides safeguards only to members of the defense services.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the All India Services?

  1. Officers of the All India Services are appointed by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

  2. The salaries and pensions of All India Services officers are paid by the Central Government.

  3. The All India Services Act, 1951, regulates the appointment and conditions of service in consultation with State Governments.

ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ കാലം പ്രവർത്തിച്ച കേന്ദ്ര ആഭ്യന്തര മന്ത്രി ?

Consider the following statements:

  1. The First ARC recommended deployment of Central armed forces in states only upon the state’s request.

  2. The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Centre may deploy armed forces without state consent, though consultation is desirable.

  3. The West Bengal Memorandum opposed central powers for deployment of armed forces without state approval.

Consider the following statements about Punchhi Commission recommendations:

  1. It recommended time limits for both State Legislature and the President in matters of state bills reserved for consideration.

  2. It supported the continuation of the All India Services.

  3. It proposed setting up an Inter-State Trade and Commerce Commission under Article 307.

Consider the following statements about the Anandpur Sahib Resolution and West Bengal Memorandum:

  1. Both sought restriction of the Centre’s jurisdiction to limited subjects.

  2. Both proposed repealing Article 356.

  3. Both demanded residuary powers for the states.

Consider the following statements about the Sarkaria Commission:

  1. It was appointed in 1983 and submitted its report in 1988.

  2. It recommended residuary powers of taxation to remain with Parliament.

  3. It suggested reactivating Zonal Councils to promote federalism.

Consider the following statements about the First ARC and Rajamannar Committee:

  1. The First ARC was appointed by the Central Government, while the Rajamannar Committee was appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government.

  2. Both bodies recommended setting up an Inter-State Council.

  3. Both reports were fully implemented by the Central Government.

Which of the following statements about the Punchhi Commission are correct?

  1. It recommended fixed five-year tenures for governors.

  2. It proposed guidelines for the governor’s role in case of a hung assembly.

  3. It recommended that governors should continue as chancellors of universities.

Which of the following statements about the West Bengal Memorandum are correct?

  1. It wanted the Centre’s jurisdiction confined to a limited set of subjects.

  2. It sought state consent for reorganisation of states.

  3. It proposed that 75% of central revenue be allocated to states.

Which of the following statements about the Anandpur Sahib Resolution are correct?

  1. It sought that residuary powers be vested in the states.

  2. It wanted the Centre’s jurisdiction limited to four specific subjects.

  3. It recommended abolishing the Planning Commission.

Which of the following statements about the Rajamannar Committee are correct?

  1. It sought to make the Finance Commission a permanent body.

  2. It recommended abolishing All India Services.

  3. It suggested transferring some Union and Concurrent list subjects to the State list.

Which of the following statements about the First ARC recommendations are correct?

  1. It called for transferring more financial resources to states.

  2. It proposed delegating powers to states to the maximum extent.

  3. It recommended that governors be appointed from among active state politicians.

Choose the correct statement(s) about the Sarkaria Commission (1983):

  1. It recommended strengthening All India Services and creating more such services.

  2. It proposed that residuary powers of taxation remain with the states.

  3. It suggested that governors should not dismiss a council of ministers as long as it enjoys assembly majority.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the West Bengal Memorandum (1977):

  1. It recommended replacing the word "Union" in the Constitution with "Federal".

  2. It suggested that Articles 356, 357, and 360 be repealed.

  3. It proposed giving the Rajya Sabha equal powers to the Lok Sabha.

Choose the correct statement(s) about the Anandpur Sahib Resolution (1973):

  1. It sought to limit the Centre’s powers to defence, foreign affairs, communications, and currency.

  2. It demanded equal representation of all states in the Rajya Sabha.

  3. It insisted that the Constitution be made truly federal.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Rajamannar Committee (1969):

  1. It was appointed by the Central Government to secure utmost autonomy for the states.

  2. It recommended abolishing the Planning Commission and replacing it with a statutory body.

  3. It suggested transferring residuary powers to the states.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India:

  1. It was set up in 1966 under the chairmanship of K. Hanumanthayya.

  2. It examined issues related to Centre–State relations through a study team under M.C. Setalvad.

  3. One of its recommendations was the creation of an Inter-State Council under Article 263.

onsider the following statements regarding the recommendations common to multiple commissions.
(i) Both the ARC and Sarkaria Commission recommended the establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263.
(ii) Both the Rajamannar Committee and West Bengal Memorandum recommended abolishing All-India Services.
(iii) Both the Anandpur Sahib Resolution and West Bengal Memorandum proposed limiting the Centre’s jurisdiction to defence, foreign affairs, communications, and currency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Sarkaria Commission.
(i) It was appointed in 1983 and submitted 247 recommendations in 1988.
(ii) It recommended that the net proceeds of corporation tax should be shareable with the states.
(iii) It suggested that the governor’s term should not be disturbed except for compelling reasons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Punchhi Commission’s recommendations?
(i) Governors should be given a fixed tenure of five years, and their removal should not be at the Centre’s discretion.
(ii) The Inter-State Council should have a continuing auditing role in matters of concurrent jurisdiction.
(iii) The All-India Services should be abolished to enhance state autonomy.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Sarkaria Commission’s recommendations?
(i) The institution of All-India Services should be further strengthened.
(ii) The Zonal Councils should be reactivated to promote federalism.
(iii) The governor can dismiss the council of ministers even if it commands a majority in the assembly.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anandpur Sahib Resolution and West Bengal Memorandum?
(i) Both demanded that the Centre’s jurisdiction be limited to defence, foreign affairs, communications, and currency.
(ii) Both proposed the abolition of All-India Services.
(iii) Both were fully implemented by the Central government.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Rajamannar Committee’s recommendations?
(i) The Finance Commission should be made a permanent body.
(ii) The Planning Commission should be replaced by a statutory body.
(iii) The Centre should have the power to deploy armed forces in states without their consent.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)?
(i) It recommended the establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution.
(ii) It suggested that governors should be appointed from among persons with long experience in public life and administration.
(iii) It proposed that the All-India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS) should be abolished.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Sarkaria Commission.
(i) It was a three-member commission appointed in 1983 to examine Centre-state relations.
(ii) It recommended that the residuary powers of taxation should remain with the Parliament.
(iii) All 247 recommendations of the commission were rejected by the Central government.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the West Bengal Memorandum of 1977.
(i) It proposed replacing the word ‘union’ with ‘federal’ in the Constitution.
(ii) It recommended that 75% of the Centre’s total revenue from all sources be allocated to the states.
(iii) The memorandum was fully accepted by the Central government.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anandpur Sahib Resolution.
(i) It was adopted by the Akali Dal in 1973 and demanded that the Centre’s jurisdiction be limited to defence, foreign affairs, communications, and currency.
(ii) It proposed that the Constitution should be federal, ensuring equal authority and representation for all states at the Centre.
(iii) The resolution was fully endorsed by the Central government.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Rajamannar Committee.
(i) It was appointed by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969 to suggest amendments for greater state autonomy.
(ii) The committee recommended the abolition of Articles 356, 357, and 365 of the Constitution.
(iii) The Central government fully accepted and implemented the committee’s recommendations.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) and its recommendations on Centre-State relations.

(i) The First Administrative Reforms Commission was appointed in 1966 under the chairmanship of Morarji Desai, followed by K. Hanumanthayya.
(ii) The ARC constituted a study team under M.C. Setalvad to examine Centre-State relations.
(iii) The ARC recommended the abolition of All-India Services like IAS, IPS, and IFoS to enhance state autonomy.

Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Relations.

(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the maintenance of communication means of national or military importance.
(ii) A state legislature cannot delegate its executive functions to the Centre without the Centre’s consent.
(iii) The principle of full faith and credit applies only to judicial proceedings and not to public acts or records.

(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the maintenance of communication means of national or military importance.
(ii) A state legislature cannot delegate its executive functions to the Centre without the Centre’s consent.
(iii) The principle of full faith and credit applies only to judicial proceedings and not to public acts or records.

Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Relations.

(i) The President can establish an Inter-State Council to discuss matters of common interest between the Centre and states.
(ii) The mutual delegation of executive functions can occur only through an agreement between the Centre and states.
(iii) The Centre’s directions to states for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes are enforceable under Article 365.

Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Relations.

(i) The distribution of executive powers between the Centre and states mirrors the distribution of legislative powers, with some exceptions.
(ii) The Centre cannot delegate its legislative powers to a state, even with mutual consent.
(iii) The states have no role in executing laws on Concurrent List subjects unless explicitly authorized by the Centre.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Administrative Relations?

(i) The Centre’s executive power extends to the entire territory of India for matters in the Union List.
(ii) The states have exclusive executive power over all matters in the Concurrent List unless specified otherwise.
(iii) The Centre can issue directions to states for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.

(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the construction and maintenance of communication means declared to be of national or military importance.
(ii) The Centre’s directions to states under Article 256 are enforceable only through persuasion, not coercion.
(iii) The states are obligated to provide adequate facilities for mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority groups.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.

(i) The Centre can issue directions to states for the construction and maintenance of communication means declared to be of national or military importance.
(ii) The Centre’s directions to states under Article 256 are enforceable only through persuasion, not coercion.
(iii) The states are obligated to provide adequate facilities for mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority groups.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding Administrative Relations between the Centre and States.

(i) The executive power of the Centre extends to matters in the Union List and to the exercise of rights, authority, and jurisdiction conferred by treaties or agreements.
(ii) The executive power of the states is restricted to their territorial jurisdiction over matters in the State List only.
(iii) For matters in the Concurrent List, the executive power lies with the Centre unless specified otherwise by the Constitution or parliamentary law.

Consider the following statements regarding legislation for international agreements and residuary powers.

(i) Under Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on State List matters to implement international treaties or agreements.
(ii) The residuary powers of legislation, including residuary taxes, are vested exclusively in the Parliament.
(iii) The state legislatures can legislate on residuary matters for Union Territories.

Consider the following statements regarding the Centre’s control over state legislation.

(i) The President enjoys an absolute veto over state bills reserved by the Governor for his consideration.
(ii) During a financial emergency, the Centre can direct states to reserve all bills for the President’s consideration.
(iii) Non-compliance with the Centre’s directions under Article 365 can lead to the imposition of President’s rule under Article 356.

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative subjects.

(i) The Union List has precedence over both the State List and the Concurrent List in case of a conflict.
(ii) The state legislature has exclusive power to legislate on any matter in the State List, except in Union Territories.
(iii) The Concurrent List originally contained 52 subjects, which has now been reduced to 47 subjects.

Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary legislation in the state field.

(i) Under Article 249, a Rajya Sabha resolution allows Parliament to legislate on a State List matter for one year, renewable annually.
(ii) Under Article 252, a law enacted by Parliament can be amended or repealed by the state legislatures of the concerned states.
(iii) During President’s rule, Parliament can legislate on State List matters, and such laws continue after the President’s rule ends.

Consider the following statements regarding the territorial jurisdiction of legislation under the Indian Constitution.

(i) The Parliament’s laws are not applicable in the scheduled areas of a state unless directed by the Governor.
(ii) The President can make regulations for Union Territories like Puducherry only when its Assembly is suspended or dissolved.
(iii) The Governor of Assam can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to tribal areas in the state with specified modifications.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legislative powers during a national emergency?

(i) The Parliament can legislate on State List matters during a proclamation of national emergency under Article 250.
(ii) Laws made by Parliament under Article 250 remain in force indefinitely after the emergency ceases.
(iii) The state legislature’s power to legislate on the same matter is not restricted during a national emergency.