Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the types of majority in the Indian Parliament:

1. A simple majority is sufficient to pass ordinary bills and money bills.

2. An absolute majority is required for the impeachment of the President under Article 61.

3. A special majority is required to amend the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law.

2. It allows exemptions from disqualification in cases of mergers if two-thirds of the party members agree.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on defection cases is not subject to judicial review.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the proclamation of a national emergency under Article 352:

1. A national emergency requires parliamentary approval within one month by a special majority.

2. The six Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended during a national emergency.

3. The President can proclaim a national emergency without the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with municipalities.

2. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects under the powers of municipalities.

3. It mandated that all states must adopt a three-tier municipal system.

Consider the following statements about mock drills in comparison to broader exercises.

1. Mock drills are typically easier to conduct than broader exercises due to their narrow focus and limited scope.
2. Mock drills always involve a larger number of participants compared to broader emergency exercises.
3. A mock drill can be conducted independently or as a component of a larger emergency exercise.

Which of the following are examples of simulated drills mentioned in the context?

1. Fire safety exercises in industrial or academic environments.
2. High-rise building victim extraction simulations.
3. Seismic event drills in schools and colleges.
4. Practicing for annual office picnics.
5. Drills for activating early warning systems.

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of mock drills.

1. Mock drills typically involve a smaller number of participants compared to broader exercises.
2. The realism of a mock drill is enhanced through the mobilization of both personnel and equipment.
3. The primary goal of a mock drill is to test the theoretical knowledge of participants without involving practical application.

Which of the following statements correctly describe the immediate outcomes of a mock drill?

1. The immediate outcome is feedback, where performance is evaluated against established standards and procedures.
2. Mock drill outcomes help in identifying gaps and weaknesses in emergency plans, allowing for immediate corrective actions.
3. Mock drills primarily serve to invalidate Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) rather than reinforce them.
4. They serve to validate Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and reinforce best practices.

Which of the following statements about the conduct and scope of mock drills is incorrect?

1. Mock drills are considered relatively difficult to conduct due to their extensive scope and large number of participants.
2. The simulation in a mock drill is made realistic through the mobilization of personnel and equipment.
3. A typical mock drill can last from a few hours to a full day and can be part of a larger exercise or conducted independently.

Identify the correct statements concerning the benefits and requirements for conducting mock drills.

1. Mock drills are effective for spreading public awareness about emergency procedures.
2. They are particularly useful for training vulnerable communities on how to respond to emergencies.
3. Mock drills can be conducted without expert guidance or supervision, as their scope is limited.
4. Ensuring the safety of all participants is a crucial aspect requiring special attention during a mock drill.

Regarding the primary goals of conducting mock drills, which of the following statements are correct?

1. One primary goal is to validate and master a specific element or procedure within an emergency response plan.
2. Mock drills are used to train emergency responders on new techniques and to practice their existing skills.
3. The main objective of mock drills is to introduce entirely new emergency response protocols without testing existing ones.

Which of the following statements accurately describe a mock drill?

1. A mock drill is an action-based exercise that simulates an emergency situation and involves rehearsing a physical response.
2. The distinguishing feature of mock drills is their narrow focus, where a single task or process is repeatedly carried out to achieve mastery.
3. Mock drills are primarily designed for theoretical understanding and do not involve any physical movement or response.

What critical aspect is emphasized for mock drills due to their specific nature?

What is the immediate outcome typically expected from a mock drill?

Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of conducting a mock drill?

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes a mock drill from other broader exercises?

What are the distinguishing characteristics and requirements of Action-Based Disaster Management Exercises?

1. A key characteristic of these exercises is the actual mobilization of personnel, equipment, and other resources.
2. They demand more extensive planning, preparation, and coordination compared to discussion-based exercises.
3. Action-Based DMEX require a smaller budget and fewer resources due to their simulated nature.

Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Action-Based Disaster Management Exercises.

1. Action-Based Disaster Management Exercises (DMEX) are mock drills and exercises where participants physically practice real-time responses to simulated disasters.
2. The primary purpose of these exercises is to confirm the effectiveness of Disaster Management (DM) Plans, Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs), and general response capabilities.
3. These exercises are primarily discussion-based activities with minimal physical involvement.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the quorum requirement in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts regarding judicial review.

What kind of demands do Action-Based DMEX place regarding their execution?

Which of the following is a paramount consideration during the execution of Action-Based DMEX?

What is/are the major change/s made through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

2. It removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights and added Article 300A.

3. It mandated that a national emergency can only be declared on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

How do Action-Based DMEX compare to discussion-based exercises in terms of preparedness payoffs?

What is/are the major change/s made through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It limited the size of the Central Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It removed the exemption from disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law for splits in political parties.

3. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.

What is the primary benefit of conducting Action-Based Disaster Management Exercises?

What is a key characteristic of Action-Based Disaster Management Exercises?

Which of the following statements regarding the benefits of TTEx is INCORRECT?

1. TTEx exclusively focuses on evaluating the financial aspects of disaster management and does not involve operational procedures.
2. A key benefit of TTEx is to provide training for disaster management officials to keep their knowledge current and relevant.
3. TTEx aims to enhance inter-agency coordination by allowing different entities to practice working together in a simulated environment.
4. It offers a secure setting to appraise decision-making processes and coordination mechanisms without real-world consequences.

Which of the following statements accurately describe the benefits of TTEx?

1. TTEx facilitates the testing of disaster management policies, plans, procedures, and existing capabilities.
2. It provides a safe environment to appraise decision-making processes and coordination mechanisms.
3. TTEx is primarily designed to reduce the overall budget allocated for disaster response, rather than improving coordination.
4. It helps in providing updated training for disaster management officials and other key stakeholders.
5. One of the core benefits is the enhancement of inter-agency coordination among different organizations involved in disaster management.

How does TTEx contribute to the improvement of decision-making and coordination?

Which of the following is a primary benefit of TTEx concerning disaster management strategies?

What is/are the major change/s made through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14.

2. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.

3. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 12.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

2. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. It mandated the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in Panchayati Raj institutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of laws.

2. It removed the right to property as a Fundamental Right and placed it under Article 300A.

3. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, excluding vacant seats.

2. A special majority under Article 368 requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

3. A simple majority is required for the approval of a national emergency under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a political party can be disqualified for voting against the party’s direction without prior permission, unless condoned within 15 days.

2. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be challenged in court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption for disqualification in case of a split in the party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution under Article 368.

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in state legislatures.

2. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill after its passage by Parliament.

64 × 54 = ?

44 × 15 =

A body of mass 10 kg is freely falling from tower on the earth. Its weight during the free fall is:

Which one of the following options is not related to Boyle's law?

Which of the following is a symbol of PNP transistor

a,

b,

c,

d.

36 × 12 =

The heat developed in a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to the square of:

363 × 99 =

4542 × 9999 =

An object of height 2 cm is kept in front of a convex lens. The height of the image formed on a screen is 6 cm. If so the magnification is: