Regarding the objectives of the State Emergency Operations Centre (SEOC), which of the following statements are accurate?
- The SEOC is tasked with continuously conducting and updating the Hazard, Vulnerability, and Risk Assessment (HVRA) for the state.
- Developing comprehensive Disaster Management (DM) Plans at both the State and District levels is a key objective of the SEOC.
- The SEOC's role in planning is limited to State-level DM Plans, with District-level planning being a separate responsibility.
Which of the following statements correctly reflect the primary aims of the National Emergency Operations Centre (EOC)?
- One of the primary goals of the National EOC is to oversee emergency operations by directing and managing all on-the-ground emergency activities.
- The National EOC is responsible for ensuring effective communication and issuing timely warnings during a disaster.
- The National EOC exclusively focuses on inter-state resource allocation and does not manage communication channels.
Consider the following statements concerning the leadership and location of State Emergency Operations Centres (SEOCs) in India:
- In most states, the State Relief Commissioner (SRC) heads the SEOC, often also serving as the Principal Secretary for Disaster Management.
- SEOCs are integral to the national emergency communication plan.
- SEOCs are exclusively located at the State Headquarters and do not have presence at District Headquarters.
Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding the operational requirements and structure of Emergency Operations Centres (EOCs).
- EOCs are required to be self-sustained and capable of operating independently for 24 to 48 hours.
- Every Indian State and Union Territory maintains its own State Emergency Operations Centre (SEOC).
- Key response agencies like the NDRF, SDRF, and Armed Forces do not maintain their own EOCs, relying solely on State EOCs.
Which of the following statements correctly describe the role and function of an Emergency Operations Centre (EOC)?
- An EOC functions as the central hub for overseeing, directing, and coordinating various activities throughout every phase of the Disaster Management Cycle.
- An efficient EOC significantly enhances effectiveness during the response and recovery stages of disaster management.
- EOCs are primarily responsible for post-disaster rehabilitation efforts and have no role in preparedness or mitigation.
Regarding the poverty rate in Kerala, identify the correct statement.
- The rate of poverty in Kerala is significantly lower compared to other Indian States and the all-India figures.
- Kerala exhibits a higher poverty rate than the national average in India due to its population density.
- The poverty rate in Kerala is similar to the average poverty rate across all other Indian states.
Consider the developmental path followed by Kerala compared to other Indian states.
- Kerala has followed a developmental path that is largely identical to that of most other Indian States.
- Kerala has adopted a unique developmental approach distinct from that followed by other Indian States.
Which of the following statements accurately defines poverty?
- Poverty is a social phenomenon in which a section of society is unable to fulfill even its basic necessities of life.
- Poverty is primarily an individual's inability to manage finances, irrespective of societal factors.
- Poverty refers to the state of having limited access to luxury goods and services.
Consider the following statements about major Constitutional Amendments:
The 73rd Amendment Act added the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.
The 52nd Amendment Act initially designated the Supreme Court as the final authority to decide on disqualification due to defection.
The 86th Amendment Act introduced the fundamental duty for a parent or guardian to provide educational opportunities to their child between the ages of 6 and 14.
The 74th Amendment Act added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with Municipalities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, consider the following provisions:
It capped the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
It stipulated that for all states, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than 12.
A member disqualified on the ground of defection is also disqualified from being appointed as a minister.
It strengthened the anti-defection law by removing the exception for splits involving one-third of the members of a legislature party.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Constitution:
'Total membership', in the context of a special majority, refers to the effective strength of the House, excluding any existing vacancies.
Ratification of an amendment by a state legislature requires the bill to be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting.
The 24th Amendment Act of 1971 made the President's assent to a constitutional amendment bill compulsory.
There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment bill.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following changes brought about by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
It added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
It transferred five subjects, including Education and Forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.
It introduced Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part XIV-A (Tribunals) into the Constitution.
It stipulated that the President can act only on the advice of the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following provisions of the Constitution:
Admission or establishment of new states.
Provisions related to the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
Amendment of Directive Principles of State Policy.
Alteration of emoluments and privileges in the Second Schedule.
Which of the provisions listed above can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament and are not considered amendments under Article 368?