Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, which includes 29 subjects related to Panchayats.

2. The 74th Amendment introduced Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects related to municipalities.

3. Both amendments were passed under the leadership of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party after six months of taking their seat in the House.

2. The disqualification of a member for defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House, and this decision is final.

3. An independent member is disqualified if they join a political party after their election.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

1. It restored the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

2. It introduced the term "Cabinet" in Article 352, requiring the President to act on the Cabinet’s written recommendation for proclaiming an emergency.

3. It allowed the suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during a national emergency.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the power of the Supreme Court to decide election disputes involving the Prime Minister and Speaker.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

2. Provisions like the use of official language or delimitation of constituencies can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.

3. There is a time limit within which state legislatures must ratify a constitutional amendment bill affecting federal provisions.

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or vote against the party’s direction without prior permission.

2. The decision on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is made by the presiding officer and is not subject to judicial review.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in cases of a split in the legislature party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances.

2. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.

3. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It extended the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments:

1. Amendments to provisions related to the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

2. A simple majority in Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the creation of new states or changes to the Fifth Schedule.

3. The term "special majority" refers to a majority of the total membership of each House, regardless of vacancies or absentees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can only be introduced in either House of Parliament and not in state legislatures.

2. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

3. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the issue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding provisions amendable by a special majority of Parliament.

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be amended by a special majority of Parliament alone.

2. The representation of states in Parliament requires a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures.

3. The number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court can be amended by a special majority of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticism of the amendment procedure.

1. The amendment procedure is criticized for being too similar to the ordinary legislative process, except for the special majority requirement.

2. The Constitution provides detailed guidelines on the time frame for state legislatures to ratify amendments.

3. The power to amend the Constitution lies exclusively with the Parliament, with no role for a special body like a Constitutional Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority in the Indian Constitution.

1. An absolute majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, irrespective of vacancies or absentees.

2. A special majority is required for the impeachment of the President, which involves a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.

3. An effective majority is used for passing ordinary bills in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the role of the President in constitutional amendments.

1. The President must give assent to a constitutional amendment bill, as mandated by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.

2. The President can initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President’s assent is required only for amendments that involve federal provisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment process under Article 368?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

2. Each House of Parliament must pass the bill separately with a special majority.

3. The President’s assent is mandatory for a constitutional amendment bill to become an Act.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution?

1. The power to amend the Constitution lies exclusively with the Parliament.

2. The President’s prior permission is required to introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

3. A constitutional amendment bill must be passed by a special majority in each House of Parliament separately.

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority is required for the removal of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha.

2. A special majority of two-thirds of the total membership of each House is required for the impeachment of the President.

3. A simple majority is sufficient for passing a Money Bill in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

1. The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

2. The case overturned the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.

3. The basic structure doctrine applies only to amendments made by a special majority of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of amendments in the Indian Constitution:

1. Amendments to provisions like the formation of new states can be made by a simple majority of Parliament.

2. Amendments to Fundamental Rights require a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures.

3. The concept of amending the Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in state legislatures.

2. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

3. In case of disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament, a joint sitting can be held to resolve the deadlock.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary approval of a National Emergency:

1. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.

2. If approved, the emergency continues for one year and can be extended indefinitely with approval every year.

3. The resolution for approval must be passed by a special majority in both Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the extension of President's Rule beyond one year is subject to which of the following conditions?

1. A proclamation of National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or any part of the state.

2. The Election Commission must certify that holding general elections to the state's legislative assembly is difficult.

3. The state's High Court must approve the extension.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

When President's Rule is imposed in a state, which of the following consequences occur?

1. The President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.

2. The President assumes the powers of the state's High Court and can suspend its constitutional provisions.

3. The Parliament becomes empowered to legislate on subjects in the State List for that state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following historical facts about the imposition of President's Rule in India:

1. The first state where President's Rule was imposed after the Constitution's enactment was Kerala in 1959.

2. The state that has been under President's Rule for the longest continuous period is Punjab.

3. The state where President's Rule has been imposed the most number of times is Manipur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the proclamation of a Financial Emergency under Article 360, consider the following statements:

1. It must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from its date of issue.

2. Once approved, it requires repeated parliamentary approval every six months for its continuation.

3. A proclamation of Financial Emergency has been declared only once in India, during the 1991 economic crisis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The proclamation for both President's Rule (Article 356) and Financial Emergency (Article 360) requires parliamentary approval within two months.

2. The resolution for approving both types of emergencies must be passed by a simple majority in Parliament.

3. The President's Rule is also known as 'Constitutional Emergency', while a Financial Emergency is known as 'State Emergency'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the history of President's Rule in Kerala, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Kerala was the first state in India where President's Rule was imposed after the enactment of the Constitution.

2. The longest continuous period of President's Rule in Kerala was from 1964 to 1967.

3. President's Rule has been imposed in Kerala a total of 11 times, the most for any state in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Regarding the imposition of President's Rule, consider the following:

Assertion (A): The President can impose President's Rule in a state even without a report from the Governor.
Reason (R): The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 affirmed that the satisfaction of the President in invoking Article 356 is not subject to judicial review.

Which of the above are true?

Consider the following statements with reference to the Financial Emergency under Article 360:

1. Unlike President's Rule, once a proclamation of Financial Emergency is approved by Parliament, it continues indefinitely without the need for repeated parliamentary approval.

2. During a Financial Emergency, the President can direct the reduction of salaries and allowances of all persons serving the Union, including the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

3. India has declared a Financial Emergency on three separate occasions, primarily linked to global economic downturns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements accurately describes the consequences of imposing President's Rule in a state?

Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary approval and duration of President's Rule (Article 356):

1. A proclamation of President's Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months of its issue.

2. Once approved, it can continue for a maximum period of three years, subject to parliamentary approval every six months.

3. For any extension beyond one year, it is mandatory that a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation and the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements about President's Rule is/are true?
i. The 44th Amendment (1978) requires a National Emergency for extending President's Rule beyond one year.
ii. The President dismisses the state Council of Ministers during President's Rule.
iii. The first imposition of President's Rule in Kerala was in 1956.
iv. Laws made during President's Rule cannot be altered by the state legislature later.

Which of the following statements about President's Rule is/are true?
i. The President can delegate law-making powers to another authority during President's Rule.
ii. President's Rule in Kerala was imposed seven times, with the last instance in 1982.
iii. The S.R. Bommai case (1994) restricted the imposition of President's Rule to one year.
iv. A simple majority is required to approve President's Rule in Parliament.

Which of the following statements about President's Rule is/are true?
i. The Governor administers the state with advisors appointed by the President during President's Rule.
ii. The 38th Amendment (1975) made the President’s satisfaction non-justiciable.
iii. Manipur has had President's Rule imposed 11 times.
iv. The state budget is passed by the state legislature during President's Rule.

Which of the following statements about President's Rule is/are true?
i. The first instance of President's Rule in a South Indian state was in Andhra in 1954.
ii. Punjab was under President's Rule for the longest cumulative period.
iii. The state High Court’s powers are suspended during President's Rule.
iv. The 44th Amendment (1978) introduced restrictions on extending President's Rule beyond one year.

Which of the following statements about President's Rule is/are true?
i. President's Rule can be imposed if a state fails to comply with Central directives under Article 365.
ii. The state legislative assembly is always dissolved during President's Rule.
iii. The President can revoke President's Rule without parliamentary approval.
iv. The maximum duration of President's Rule is two years.

Read the following statements:
i. During President's Rule, the state Council of Ministers is dismissed.
ii. The state Governor administers the state on behalf of the President.
iii. The Parliament cannot delegate law-making powers to any authority during President's Rule.
iv. Laws made during President's Rule cease to exist once it is revoked.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Read the following statements:
i. A proclamation of President's Rule requires approval by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
ii. If Lok Sabha is dissolved, the proclamation survives until 30 days after its reconstitution, provided Rajya Sabha approves.
iii. President's Rule can be extended indefinitely with parliamentary approval every six months.
iv. The 44th Amendment restricts extensions beyond one year unless specific conditions are met.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Read the following statements:
i. The first imposition of President's Rule in India was in Punjab in 1951.
ii. Manipur has experienced President's Rule the most times, with 11 instances.
iii. The longest period of President's Rule in Kerala was from 1964 to 1967.
iv. The President’s Rule in Kerala in 1956 was the first instance in a South Indian state.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the scope of the Doctrine of Pleasure.

1. The doctrine applies to Governors but not to Supreme Court Judges.

2. The doctrine is unrestricted for all civil servants under Article 310.
   

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure in India.

1. The Doctrine of Pleasure is enshrined in Article 310 of the Constitution of India.

2. Article 311 provides safeguards against arbitrary dismissal of civil servants.
   

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the judicial interpretation of the Doctrine of Pleasure?

1. State of Bihar vs. Abdul Majid (1954) clarified that the doctrine was not adopted in its entirety from English Common Law.

2. Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) emphasized that the doctrine is grounded in public policy.

3. The doctrine allows unrestricted dismissal of Chief Election Commissioners.
   

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the application of the Doctrine of Pleasure?

1. The doctrine applies to members of the All India Services.

2. The President can dismiss Supreme Court Judges under the Doctrine of Pleasure.

3. Article 311 safeguards apply only to permanent civil servants.
   

Which of the following statements are correct about the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?

1. It is based on public policy as established in Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985).

2. The English Common Law version of the doctrine was fully adopted in India.

3. Governors hold office at the pleasure of the President under Article 155.
   

Which of the following statements are correct about the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?

1. It is based on public policy as established in Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985).

2. The English Common Law version of the doctrine was fully adopted in India.

3. Governors hold office at the pleasure of the President under Article 155.
   

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the restrictions on the Doctrine of Pleasure?

1. Article 311 provides civil servants a reasonable opportunity for a hearing before dismissal.

2. The tenure of High Court Judges is protected from the Doctrine of Pleasure.

3. The Doctrine of Pleasure applies to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
   

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?

1. The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President to terminate civil servants without notice.

2. The doctrine is derived from the British legal system but has been modified for the Indian context.

3. Article 311 completely eliminates the application of the Doctrine of Pleasure for civil servants.

Which article of the Constitution of India governs the tenure of a State Governor under the Doctrine of Pleasure?

Which landmark case clarified that the Doctrine of Pleasure in India is based on public policy rather than feudal or prerogative principles?

Statement: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made provisions for the creation of an All India Judicial Service.
Assertion: The All India Judicial Service has been implemented and includes posts not inferior to that of a district judge.

Which of the following is correct?