Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC advises on the suitability of candidates for promotions and transfers.
ii. The Governor can exclude certain posts and services from the SPSC’s consultation.
iii. A selection by the SPSC confers a right to the post for the candidate.
iv. The Travancore-Cochin PSC was formed on July 1, 1949.
Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC’s role is limited to recruitment and advisory functions on disciplinary matters.
ii. The President determines the number of members of the Joint State PSC.
iii. The Cochin PSC was formed in 1947 as a three-member commission.
iv. The SPSC is consulted on claims for pensions due to injuries sustained in service.
Consider the following statements:
The State PSC is a constitutional body under Part XIV of the Constitution.
The Governor can appoint an acting chairman only when the SPSC Chairman’s office is vacant.
The SPSC’s recommendations are directory and not mandatory for the state government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
The President can remove an SPSC member for insolvency or physical incapacity.
The Supreme Court’s enquiry into misbehaviour by an SPSC member is initiated by the Governor.
The SPSC is not consulted on matters related to the classification of state services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
The Joint State PSC submits its annual report to each concerned state’s Governor.
The conditions of service of an SPSC member cannot be altered to their disadvantage after appointment.
The Travancore PSC functioned from 1936 to 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
The SPSC advises on the principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services.
The state legislature can repeal regulations made by the Governor regarding non-consultation with the SPSC.
A member of the SPSC is eligible for appointment as a member of the UPSC after their term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
The SPSC is consulted on claims for pensions due to injuries sustained in service.
The first Commissioner of the Travancore PSC was G.D. Nokes.
The SPSC’s selection does not confer any right to a post upon a candidate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985:
The Act empowers the Central Government to establish both Central and State Administrative Tribunals.
The Act provides for the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) for two or more states.
The Act mandates that the CAT follow the procedures of the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction and functioning of Tribunals:
The Central Administrative Tribunal has jurisdiction over civilian posts under the Defence Services but not over members of the Defence Forces.
State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are established by the Central Government on the request of State Governments.
Tribunals under Article 323B can adjudicate disputes related to rent and tenancy rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure:
The Doctrine of Pleasure is derived from the British legal system but has been adapted to the Indian context.
Article 310 of the Constitution of India applies the Doctrine of Pleasure to all civil servants, including members of the All India Services and Defence Services.
What is/are the major feature(s) of Tribunals under Article 323B?
(i) They can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures for matters like taxation and land reforms.
(ii) They require a hierarchical structure of tribunals.
(iii) They have exclusive jurisdiction over service matters of state government employees.
What is/are the major feature(s) of the Chandra Kumar case (1997)?
(i) It declared the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction over CAT orders unconstitutional.
(ii) It established that appeals against CAT orders must be made to the division bench of the concerned High Court.
(iii) It upheld the complete exclusion of Supreme Court jurisdiction over tribunal orders.
What is/are the major feature(s) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?
(i) It empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) It allows the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals for two or more states.
(iii) It mandates that the CAT follow the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
What is/are the major feature(s) of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
(i) The CAT was established in 1985 with its Principal Bench in New Delhi.
(ii) The CAT has 19 benches across India, including one in Ernakulam for Kerala and Lakshadweep.
(iii) The CAT’s jurisdiction includes members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
What is/are the major feature(s) of the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?
(i) It allows the President or Governor to terminate civil servants’ services without notice, subject to Article 311 restrictions.
(ii) It applies to the tenure of Supreme Court Judges and the Chief Election Commissioner.
(iii) It was modified from the British legal system to suit the Indian social structure.
Consider the following statements with regard to Tribunals under Article 323B:
(i) Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for matters such as taxation, land reforms, and elections.
(ii) Tribunals under Article 323B must be established in a hierarchical structure.
(iii) The jurisdiction of High Courts and the Supreme Court over tribunals under Article 323B was completely excluded by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with regard to Administrative Tribunals:
(i) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) The post of Vice-Chairman in the Central Administrative Tribunal was removed by the Administrative Tribunals Amendment Act, 2006.
(iii) The Central Administrative Tribunal is bound by the procedures laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with regard to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
(i) The CAT was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, pursuant to Article 323A of the Constitution.
(ii) The CAT has jurisdiction over matters relating to All India Services, Central Civil Services, and civilian posts under Defence.
(iii) Appeals against CAT orders can be made directly to the Supreme Court without approaching the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with regard to Article 311 of the Constitution of India:
(i) Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants by requiring a reasonable opportunity for a hearing.
(ii) Article 311 applies to all civil servants, including members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
(iii) The restrictions under Article 311 control the exercise of the Doctrine of Pleasure by the President or Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements with regard to the Doctrine of Pleasure:
(i) The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without providing any notice, based on public policy.
(ii) The tenure of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is subject to the pleasure of the President.
(iii) The Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy rather than a feudal prerogative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?