Consider the following statements:

1. The SPSC advises on the principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services.

2. The state legislature can repeal regulations made by the Governor regarding non-consultation with the SPSC.

3. A member of the SPSC is eligible for appointment as a member of the UPSC after their term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The SPSC is consulted on claims for pensions due to injuries sustained in service.

2. The first Commissioner of the Travancore PSC was G.D. Nokes.

3. The SPSC’s selection does not confer any right to a post upon a candidate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985:

1. The Act empowers the Central Government to establish both Central and State Administrative Tribunals.

2. The Act provides for the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) for two or more states.

3. The Act mandates that the CAT follow the procedures of the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction and functioning of Tribunals:

1. The Central Administrative Tribunal has jurisdiction over civilian posts under the Defence Services but not over members of the Defence Forces.

2. State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are established by the Central Government on the request of State Governments.

3. Tribunals under Article 323B can adjudicate disputes related to rent and tenancy rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure:

1. The Doctrine of Pleasure is derived from the British legal system but has been adapted to the Indian context.

2. Article 310 of the Constitution of India applies the Doctrine of Pleasure to all civil servants, including members of the All India Services and Defence Services.

What is/are the major feature(s) of Tribunals under Article 323B?

(i) They can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures for matters like taxation and land reforms.
(ii) They require a hierarchical structure of tribunals.
(iii) They have exclusive jurisdiction over service matters of state government employees.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Chandra Kumar case (1997)?

(i) It declared the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction over CAT orders unconstitutional.
(ii) It established that appeals against CAT orders must be made to the division bench of the concerned High Court.
(iii) It upheld the complete exclusion of Supreme Court jurisdiction over tribunal orders.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?

(i) It empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) It allows the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals for two or more states.
(iii) It mandates that the CAT follow the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

(i) The CAT was established in 1985 with its Principal Bench in New Delhi.
(ii) The CAT has 19 benches across India, including one in Ernakulam for Kerala and Lakshadweep.
(iii) The CAT’s jurisdiction includes members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?

(i) It allows the President or Governor to terminate civil servants’ services without notice, subject to Article 311 restrictions.
(ii) It applies to the tenure of Supreme Court Judges and the Chief Election Commissioner.
(iii) It was modified from the British legal system to suit the Indian social structure.

Consider the following statements with regard to Tribunals under Article 323B:

(i) Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for matters such as taxation, land reforms, and elections.
(ii) Tribunals under Article 323B must be established in a hierarchical structure.
(iii) The jurisdiction of High Courts and the Supreme Court over tribunals under Article 323B was completely excluded by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to Administrative Tribunals:

(i) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) The post of Vice-Chairman in the Central Administrative Tribunal was removed by the Administrative Tribunals Amendment Act, 2006.
(iii) The Central Administrative Tribunal is bound by the procedures laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

(i) The CAT was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, pursuant to Article 323A of the Constitution.
(ii) The CAT has jurisdiction over matters relating to All India Services, Central Civil Services, and civilian posts under Defence.
(iii) Appeals against CAT orders can be made directly to the Supreme Court without approaching the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to Article 311 of the Constitution of India:

(i) Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants by requiring a reasonable opportunity for a hearing.
(ii) Article 311 applies to all civil servants, including members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
(iii) The restrictions under Article 311 control the exercise of the Doctrine of Pleasure by the President or Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to the Doctrine of Pleasure:

(i) The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without providing any notice, based on public policy.
(ii) The tenure of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is subject to the pleasure of the President.
(iii) The Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy rather than a feudal prerogative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Read the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law.

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.

2. An independent member is disqualified if they join any political party after their election.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be passed by a joint sitting of both houses of Parliament.

2. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements about amending the federal provisions of the Constitution:

1. It requires a special majority of the Parliament.

2. It must be ratified by the legislatures of all the states.

3. The ratification by states requires a special majority in their legislatures.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. The consent of state legislatures is required for amendments affecting the federal structure of the Constitution.

2. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended.

3. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the types of majority in the Indian Parliament:

1. A simple majority is sufficient to pass ordinary bills and money bills.

2. An absolute majority is required for the impeachment of the President under Article 61.

3. A special majority is required to amend the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law.

2. It allows exemptions from disqualification in cases of mergers if two-thirds of the party members agree.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on defection cases is not subject to judicial review.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the proclamation of a national emergency under Article 352:

1. A national emergency requires parliamentary approval within one month by a special majority.

2. The six Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended during a national emergency.

3. The President can proclaim a national emergency without the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with municipalities.

2. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects under the powers of municipalities.

3. It mandated that all states must adopt a three-tier municipal system.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the quorum requirement in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts regarding judicial review.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

2. It removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights and added Article 300A.

3. It mandated that a national emergency can only be declared on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It limited the size of the Central Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It removed the exemption from disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law for splits in political parties.

3. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14.

2. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.

3. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 12.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

2. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. It mandated the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in Panchayati Raj institutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of laws.

2. It removed the right to property as a Fundamental Right and placed it under Article 300A.

3. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, excluding vacant seats.

2. A special majority under Article 368 requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

3. A simple majority is required for the approval of a national emergency under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a political party can be disqualified for voting against the party’s direction without prior permission, unless condoned within 15 days.

2. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be challenged in court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption for disqualification in case of a split in the party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution under Article 368.

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament but not in state legislatures.

2. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be held to resolve disagreements over a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill after its passage by Parliament.

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. It added Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

2. It empowered the Centre to deploy armed forces in states to address serious law and order situations.

3. It froze the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies based on the 1971 Census until 2001.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

1. It established that constitutional amendments cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.

2. It upheld the 24th Constitutional Amendment, which made the President’s assent to amendment bills mandatory.

3. It ruled that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, which includes 29 subjects related to Panchayats.

2. The 74th Amendment introduced Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects related to municipalities.

3. Both amendments were passed under the leadership of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party after six months of taking their seat in the House.

2. The disqualification of a member for defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House, and this decision is final.

3. An independent member is disqualified if they join a political party after their election.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

1. It restored the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years from 6 years.

2. It introduced the term "Cabinet" in Article 352, requiring the President to act on the Cabinet’s written recommendation for proclaiming an emergency.

3. It allowed the suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during a national emergency.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the power of the Supreme Court to decide election disputes involving the Prime Minister and Speaker.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.

2. Provisions like the use of official language or delimitation of constituencies can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.

3. There is a time limit within which state legislatures must ratify a constitutional amendment bill affecting federal provisions.

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a House is disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or vote against the party’s direction without prior permission.

2. The decision on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is made by the presiding officer and is not subject to judicial review.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in cases of a split in the legislature party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances.

2. It removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Part XII.

3. It allowed the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a national emergency declared on any ground.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Constitution.

2. It extended the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.

3. It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments:

1. Amendments to provisions related to the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

2. A simple majority in Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the creation of new states or changes to the Fifth Schedule.

3. The term "special majority" refers to a majority of the total membership of each House, regardless of vacancies or absentees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can only be introduced in either House of Parliament and not in state legislatures.

2. The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill or return it for reconsideration.

3. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the issue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding provisions amendable by a special majority of Parliament.

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be amended by a special majority of Parliament alone.

2. The representation of states in Parliament requires a special majority of Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures.

3. The number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court can be amended by a special majority of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the criticism of the amendment procedure.

1. The amendment procedure is criticized for being too similar to the ordinary legislative process, except for the special majority requirement.

2. The Constitution provides detailed guidelines on the time frame for state legislatures to ratify amendments.

3. The power to amend the Constitution lies exclusively with the Parliament, with no role for a special body like a Constitutional Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority in the Indian Constitution.

1. An absolute majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, irrespective of vacancies or absentees.

2. A special majority is required for the impeachment of the President, which involves a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.

3. An effective majority is used for passing ordinary bills in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the role of the President in constitutional amendments.

1. The President must give assent to a constitutional amendment bill, as mandated by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.

2. The President can initiate a constitutional amendment bill.

3. The President’s assent is required only for amendments that involve federal provisions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the amendment process under Article 368?

1. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

2. Each House of Parliament must pass the bill separately with a special majority.

3. The President’s assent is mandatory for a constitutional amendment bill to become an Act.