Assertion (A): The expenses of the SPSC, including salaries and pensions, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State.
Reason (R): This provision ensures the financial independence of the SPSC, as its expenses are not subject to the vote of the state legislature.

Consider the following statements about the functions of the SPSC:

1. The SPSC is consulted on the principles to be followed in making appointments, promotions, and transfers for civil services.

2. If the government fails to consult the SPSC in a required matter, its decision is automatically invalidated and the aggrieved servant has a remedy in court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the removal of an SPSC member, which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

1. The Chairman of an SPSC is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.

2. During the course of an inquiry into misbehaviour by the Supreme Court, the President has the power to suspend the concerned member.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and composition of an SPSC:

1. The Constitution of India specifies that a State Public Service Commission must have a Chairman and ten other members.

2. The Governor is authorised to determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the functions of the SPSC?

1. The SPSC conducts examinations for appointments to state services.

2. The SPSC must be consulted on all matters related to the classification of state services.

3. The state legislature can extend the jurisdiction of the SPSC to local bodies.
   

Which of the following statements are correct about the removal of SPSC members?

1. The Governor can suspend a member of the SPSC during an enquiry into misbehaviour.

2. The President can remove a member of the SPSC if they are found to be insolvent.

3. The Supreme Court’s advice is advisory and not binding on the President in cases of misbehaviour.
   

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC)?

1. The number of members in the SPSC is fixed by the Constitution.

2. The Governor determines the conditions of service for the Chairman and members of the SPSC.

3. The Chairman of the SPSC can be reappointed for a second term after completing the first term.
   

Consider the following statements:
i. The expenses of the State PSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.
ii. The Governor can suspend a member of the SPSC during an enquiry for misbehaviour.
iii. The advice of the Supreme Court in a misbehaviour enquiry against an SPSC member is binding on the President.
iv. The State PSC is a constitutional body, unlike the Joint State PSC, which is a statutory body.

Select the true answer from the codes given below:

Consider the following statements:
i. The State PSC is consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting state civil servants.
ii. The State PSC’s recommendations are binding on the state government.
iii. The State PSC conducts examinations for appointments to state services.
iv. The jurisdiction of the State PSC can be extended to local bodies by the state legislature.

Select the true answer from the codes given below:

Consider the following statements:
i. The Chairman of a State PSC is ineligible for reappointment to the same office after completing the first term.
ii. The conditions of service of the SPSC Chairman can be varied to their disadvantage after appointment.
iii. The Kerala PSC was formed on November 1, 1956.
iv. The first chairman of the Travancore-Cochin PSC was C. Kunhiraman.

Select the true answer from the codes given below:

Consider the following statements:
i. The President appoints the members of the Joint State PSC.
ii. The Travancore PSC was formed on June 14, 1936.
iii. The State PSC is not consulted on matters related to reservations for backward classes.
iv. The Governor can appoint an acting chairman if the SPSC Chairman is absent.

Select the true answer from the codes given below:

Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC submits an annual performance report to the state legislature directly.
ii. The Governor determines the conditions of service for the SPSC Chairman and members.
iii. The SPSC is known as the ‘watchdog of the merit system’ in the state.
iv. A member of the SPSC can be appointed as the Chairman of the same SPSC after their term.

Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC advises on claims for reimbursement of legal expenses by civil servants.
ii. The President can remove an SPSC member for engaging in paid employment outside their duties.
iii. The SPSC’s jurisdiction can be extended to public institutions by the Governor.
iv. The Supreme Court’s advice on misbehaviour cases is advisory and not binding on the President.

Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC is not consulted on matters related to cadre management or training.
ii. The Joint State PSC is a constitutional body established under Article 315.
iii. The first chairman of the Kerala PSC was V.K. Velayudhan.
iv. The expenses of the SPSC are subject to the vote of the state legislature.

Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC advises on the suitability of candidates for promotions and transfers.
ii. The Governor can exclude certain posts and services from the SPSC’s consultation.
iii. A selection by the SPSC confers a right to the post for the candidate.
iv. The Travancore-Cochin PSC was formed on July 1, 1949.

Which of the following statements about the State Public Service Commission is/are true?
i. The SPSC’s role is limited to recruitment and advisory functions on disciplinary matters.
ii. The President determines the number of members of the Joint State PSC.
iii. The Cochin PSC was formed in 1947 as a three-member commission.
iv. The SPSC is consulted on claims for pensions due to injuries sustained in service.

Consider the following statements:

1. The State PSC is a constitutional body under Part XIV of the Constitution.

2. The Governor can appoint an acting chairman only when the SPSC Chairman’s office is vacant.

3. The SPSC’s recommendations are directory and not mandatory for the state government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The President can remove an SPSC member for insolvency or physical incapacity.

2. The Supreme Court’s enquiry into misbehaviour by an SPSC member is initiated by the Governor.

3. The SPSC is not consulted on matters related to the classification of state services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The Joint State PSC submits its annual report to each concerned state’s Governor.

2. The conditions of service of an SPSC member cannot be altered to their disadvantage after appointment.

3. The Travancore PSC functioned from 1936 to 1949.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The SPSC advises on the principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services.

2. The state legislature can repeal regulations made by the Governor regarding non-consultation with the SPSC.

3. A member of the SPSC is eligible for appointment as a member of the UPSC after their term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The SPSC is consulted on claims for pensions due to injuries sustained in service.

2. The first Commissioner of the Travancore PSC was G.D. Nokes.

3. The SPSC’s selection does not confer any right to a post upon a candidate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985:

1. The Act empowers the Central Government to establish both Central and State Administrative Tribunals.

2. The Act provides for the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals (JATs) for two or more states.

3. The Act mandates that the CAT follow the procedures of the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction and functioning of Tribunals:

1. The Central Administrative Tribunal has jurisdiction over civilian posts under the Defence Services but not over members of the Defence Forces.

2. State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are established by the Central Government on the request of State Governments.

3. Tribunals under Article 323B can adjudicate disputes related to rent and tenancy rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Doctrine of Pleasure:

1. The Doctrine of Pleasure is derived from the British legal system but has been adapted to the Indian context.

2. Article 310 of the Constitution of India applies the Doctrine of Pleasure to all civil servants, including members of the All India Services and Defence Services.

What is/are the major feature(s) of Tribunals under Article 323B?

(i) They can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures for matters like taxation and land reforms.
(ii) They require a hierarchical structure of tribunals.
(iii) They have exclusive jurisdiction over service matters of state government employees.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Chandra Kumar case (1997)?

(i) It declared the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction over CAT orders unconstitutional.
(ii) It established that appeals against CAT orders must be made to the division bench of the concerned High Court.
(iii) It upheld the complete exclusion of Supreme Court jurisdiction over tribunal orders.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?

(i) It empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) It allows the establishment of Joint Administrative Tribunals for two or more states.
(iii) It mandates that the CAT follow the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

(i) The CAT was established in 1985 with its Principal Bench in New Delhi.
(ii) The CAT has 19 benches across India, including one in Ernakulam for Kerala and Lakshadweep.
(iii) The CAT’s jurisdiction includes members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.

What is/are the major feature(s) of the Doctrine of Pleasure in India?

(i) It allows the President or Governor to terminate civil servants’ services without notice, subject to Article 311 restrictions.
(ii) It applies to the tenure of Supreme Court Judges and the Chief Election Commissioner.
(iii) It was modified from the British legal system to suit the Indian social structure.

Consider the following statements with regard to Tribunals under Article 323B:

(i) Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for matters such as taxation, land reforms, and elections.
(ii) Tribunals under Article 323B must be established in a hierarchical structure.
(iii) The jurisdiction of High Courts and the Supreme Court over tribunals under Article 323B was completely excluded by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to Administrative Tribunals:

(i) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, empowers the Central Government to establish State Administrative Tribunals at the request of State Governments.
(ii) The post of Vice-Chairman in the Central Administrative Tribunal was removed by the Administrative Tribunals Amendment Act, 2006.
(iii) The Central Administrative Tribunal is bound by the procedures laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

(i) The CAT was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, pursuant to Article 323A of the Constitution.
(ii) The CAT has jurisdiction over matters relating to All India Services, Central Civil Services, and civilian posts under Defence.
(iii) Appeals against CAT orders can be made directly to the Supreme Court without approaching the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to Article 311 of the Constitution of India:

(i) Article 311 imposes restrictions on the arbitrary dismissal of civil servants by requiring a reasonable opportunity for a hearing.
(ii) Article 311 applies to all civil servants, including members of the Defence Forces and secretarial staff of Parliament.
(iii) The restrictions under Article 311 control the exercise of the Doctrine of Pleasure by the President or Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to the Doctrine of Pleasure:

(i) The Doctrine of Pleasure allows the President or Governor to terminate a civil servant’s service without providing any notice, based on public policy.
(ii) The tenure of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is subject to the pleasure of the President.
(iii) The Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Tulsiram Patel (1985) held that the Doctrine of Pleasure is based on public policy rather than a feudal prerogative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Read the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law.

1. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.

2. An independent member is disqualified if they join any political party after their election.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements:

1. A constitutional amendment bill can be passed by a joint sitting of both houses of Parliament.

2. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   

Consider the following statements about amending the federal provisions of the Constitution:

1. It requires a special majority of the Parliament.

2. It must be ratified by the legislatures of all the states.

3. The ratification by states requires a special majority in their legislatures.
   Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
   

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. The consent of state legislatures is required for amendments affecting the federal structure of the Constitution.

2. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended.

3. A constitutional amendment bill requires prior permission from the President before introduction in Parliament.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the types of majority in the Indian Parliament:

1. A simple majority is sufficient to pass ordinary bills and money bills.

2. An absolute majority is required for the impeachment of the President under Article 61.

3. A special majority is required to amend the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law.

2. It allows exemptions from disqualification in cases of mergers if two-thirds of the party members agree.

3. The decision of the presiding officer on defection cases is not subject to judicial review.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the proclamation of a national emergency under Article 352:

1. A national emergency requires parliamentary approval within one month by a special majority.

2. The six Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended during a national emergency.

3. The President can proclaim a national emergency without the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with municipalities.

2. It introduced the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 subjects under the powers of municipalities.

3. It mandated that all states must adopt a three-tier municipal system.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

2. It abolished the quorum requirement in Parliament and state legislatures.

3. It curtailed the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts regarding judicial review.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It restored the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to 5 years.

2. It removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights and added Article 300A.

3. It mandated that a national emergency can only be declared on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It limited the size of the Central Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. It removed the exemption from disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law for splits in political parties.

3. It introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14.

2. It amended Article 45 to provide for early childhood care and education for children below 6 years.

3. It increased the number of Fundamental Duties to 12.

What is/are the major change/s made through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. It added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with the Panchayati Raj system.

2. It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.

3. It mandated the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in Panchayati Raj institutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of laws.

2. It removed the right to property as a Fundamental Right and placed it under Article 300A.

3. It abolished the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for constitutional amendment bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the types of majority required in Parliament:

1. An effective majority refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, excluding vacant seats.

2. A special majority under Article 368 requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

3. A simple majority is required for the approval of a national emergency under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd Constitutional Amendment:

1. A member of a political party can be disqualified for voting against the party’s direction without prior permission, unless condoned within 15 days.

2. The decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification is final and cannot be challenged in court.

3. The 91st Amendment removed the exemption for disqualification in case of a split in the party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?