Identify the correct statements related to e-governance security drawbacks.
- Unauthorized information disclosure is a risk where sensitive personal or government information is exposed.
- Cyber crimes are not a significant threat to e-governance.
- Spoofing is a type of attack where a malicious actor impersonates a legitimate user.
- Repudiation ensures the authenticity and reliability of digital records.
Which of the following describe potential security threats to e-governance systems?
- Denial of Service (DoS) attacks can render e-governance services inaccessible.
- Spoofing allows attackers to gain unauthorized access by pretending to be someone else.
- Privilege escalation enables attackers to perform actions reserved for high-level users.
- Unauthorized Data Manipulation involves the lawful modification of confidential information.
What is meant by 'Repudiation' in the context of e-governance security drawbacks?
- It is a security risk where a user involved in an e-governance transaction can later deny that the transaction ever occurred.
- It refers to the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information due to a system compromise.
- It describes the act of an attacker impersonating a legitimate user.
- It is an attack that floods an e-governance server with requests, causing it to crash.
Identify the false statement regarding the security drawbacks of e-governance.
- Privilege escalation allows an attacker to gain higher-level access after initial basic access.
- Repudiation means a user can confirm a transaction they were involved in.
- Spoofing is a method used to gain unauthorized access by impersonation.
- Denial of Service (DoS) attacks make e-governance services unavailable to users.
Which of the following are security drawbacks of e-governance?
- Spoofing involves an attacker impersonating a legitimate user or using a false IP address to gain unauthorized access.
- Unauthorized data manipulation allows an attacker to lawfully alter confidential information.
- Repudiation is a risk where a user can deny a transaction they were involved in.
- Denial of Service (DoS) attacks involve overwhelming a server with requests to make it unavailable.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It introduced Article 246A, empowering both Parliament and state legislatures to levy GST on goods and services.
ii. It repealed Article 268A, which dealt with service tax levied by the Union and collected by both Union and states.
iii. It mandated that the GST Council be chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It added the right to form cooperative societies as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(c).
ii. It mandated that the board of directors of a cooperative society shall not exceed 21 members.
iii. It provided for the supersession of a cooperative society’s board for up to one year in case of persistent default.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?
i. It limited the size of the Council of Ministers in the Centre and states to 15% of the total strength of the respective Houses.
ii. It disqualified members defecting from their party from holding any ministerial or remunerative public office.
iii. It restored the exemption for disqualification in case of a split involving one-third of a party’s members.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the types of majority required for constitutional amendments in India?
i. Amendments affecting the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
ii. A simple majority of Parliament is sufficient to amend provisions like the formation of new states or the delimitation of constituencies.
iii. An effective majority is required for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments:
The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, while the 74th Amendment added Part IX-A, dealing with Municipalities.
The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, lists 29 subjects under the purview of Panchayats.
The 74th Amendment mandates that one-third of the seats in Municipalities be reserved for women.
How many of the above statements are correct? A) Only one B) Only two C) All three D) None of the above
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act:
It restored the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts to conduct judicial review of ordinances issued by the President and Governors.
It extended the term of the Lok Sabha and state legislatures from five years to six years.
It provided that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the Anti-Defection Law under the 52nd and 91st Constitutional Amendments:
The 52nd Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule, which disqualifies a member of a House who voluntarily gives up their party membership.
The 91st Amendment removed the exemption from disqualification in case of a split in a political party involving one-third of its members.
The decision of the presiding officer on disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law is final and cannot be questioned in any court.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:
It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
It transferred five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List.
It abolished the requirement of a quorum in Parliament and state legislatures.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:
An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.
In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.
The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:
An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.
In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.
The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:
An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a private member without the prior permission of the President.
In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a constitutional amendment bill, a joint sitting of both Houses can be convened to resolve the disagreement.
The President is constitutionally obligated to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?